The nurse responsible for completing the medical history during a couple's initial visit to the reproductive medicine clinic recognizes which of the following as the leading cause of tubal factor infertility in the female?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: B: History of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is the leading cause of tubal factor infertility as it can lead to scarring and blockages in the fallopian tubes, hindering the passage of eggs. A: Endometriosis can affect fertility but is not the leading cause of tubal factor infertility. C: Ectopic pregnancy can result from tubal issues but is not the leading cause of tubal factor infertility. D: Asherman's syndrome involves scarring in the uterus, not the fallopian tubes, making it less likely to be the leading cause of tubal factor infertility.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because folic acid plays a crucial role in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus during early pregnancy. Folic acid is essential for proper development of the neural tube, which forms the baby's brain and spinal cord. This is why it is particularly important during preconception care and in the early stages of pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is not specifically for preventing iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as folic acid is important throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid does not directly enhance the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because fertility declines with age, leading to increased risk of complications such as chromosomal abnormalities and miscarriages. This is important to emphasize during preconception counseling. Choice A is incorrect as advanced maternal age does impact pregnancy outcomes. Choice C is incorrect because both maternal and paternal age can affect pregnancy success. Choice D is incorrect as advanced maternal age actually increases the need for additional prenatal care due to higher risk factors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ovarian reserve testing evaluates the quantity and quality of a woman's remaining eggs, helping to determine her fertility potential. This includes tests like AMH levels, antral follicle count, and FSH levels. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to assessing uterine abnormalities, not ovarian reserve. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to monitoring hormone levels during pregnancy, not fertility evaluation. Choice D is incorrect as ovarian reserve testing does not predict success of natural conception within a specific timeframe.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because tracking ovulation using basal body temperature and ovulation kits helps identify the most fertile days for conception. This method allows the patient to time intercourse effectively. Increasing carbohydrate intake (B) does not address the root cause of irregular periods. Avoiding exercise (C) is not recommended as moderate exercise can actually help regulate menstrual cycles. Undergoing hormone therapy immediately (D) is an aggressive approach and should only be considered after other options have been explored.