The nurse recognizes that which patient is likely to benefit most from patient-controlled analgesia?

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Question 1 of 5

The nurse recognizes that which patient is likely to benefit most from patient-controlled analgesia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, the 21-year-old with a C4 fracture and quadriplegia. This patient is likely to benefit most from patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to the inability to self-administer traditional pain medications. With quadriplegia, the patient may have limited mobility and sensation, making it challenging to communicate pain levels effectively. PCA allows the patient to control their pain relief within preset limits, enhancing autonomy and optimizing pain management. Summary: - Choice B: The 45-year-old with femur fracture and closed head injury may benefit from PCA, but the severity of the head injury could affect their ability to use the device effectively. - Choice C: The 59-year-old postoperative elective bariatric surgery patient can typically manage pain with traditional methods postoperatively. - Choice D: The 70-year-old postoperative cardiac surgery patient with mild dementia may have the cognitive ability to use PCA but could potentially benefit more from other pain management strategies due

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following are accepted nonpharmacological approaches to managing pain and/or anxiety in critically ill patients? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Environmental manipulation involves adjusting factors like lighting, noise levels, and room temperature to create a soothing environment, which can help reduce pain and anxiety. Step 2: By controlling the physical surroundings, patients may feel more comfortable and relaxed, leading to improved pain management and reduced anxiety levels. Step 3: Explanations of monitoring equipment and guided imagery are not directly related to environmental changes that can impact pain and anxiety. Step 4: Music therapy, while beneficial for some patients, is not categorized as environmental manipulation.

Question 3 of 5

A patient’s ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia. The fraction of inspired oxygen is increased from.60 to.70, and the positive end-expiratory pressure is increased from 10 to 15 cm H O. Shortly after these adjustments, the nurse notes that the patient’s blood pressure drops from 120/76 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What is the m ost likely cause of this decrease in blood pressure?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypovolemia. When the ventilator settings are adjusted to treat hypoxemia by increasing FiO2 and PEEP, it can lead to increased oxygenation but also potentially decrease venous return to the heart, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This decrease in blood pressure is most likely due to hypovolemia, as the increased PEEP can increase intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and preload, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent decrease in blood pressure. This choice is the most likely cause as the other options (A: Decrease in cardiac output, C: Increase in venous return, D: Oxygen toxicity) do not directly correlate with the changes in ventilator settings described in the question.

Question 4 of 5

While neuromuscular blocking agents are used in the management of some ventilated patients what is their primary mode of action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This is essential in ventilated patients to facilitate mechanical ventilation and prevent patient-ventilator dyssynchrony. Rationale: A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief. They do not have any direct analgesic properties. B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures. They do not have anticonvulsant effects. D: Sedation - While sedatives may be used in conjunction with neuromuscular blocking agents, the primary mode of action of these agents is muscle paralysis, not sedation.

Question 5 of 5

What risk is the rationale for the recommendation of endot racheal rather than nasotracheal intubation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basilar skull fracture. Endotracheal intubation is recommended over nasotracheal intubation to avoid the risk of further damaging a basilar skull fracture. Nasotracheal intubation can potentially cause further injury due to the passage of the tube through the nasal cavity, which could exacerbate a basilar skull fracture. Summary of other choices: B: Cervical hyperextension - Not directly related to the choice between endotracheal and nasotracheal intubation. C: Impaired ability to "mouth" words - Not a significant factor in determining the choice of intubation method. D: Sinusitis and infection - While nasotracheal intubation can potentially lead to sinusitis and infection, the primary concern in this scenario is the risk of aggravating a basilar skull fracture.

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