The nurse receives a stat order to administer 50% dextrose solution intravenously to a 1-year-old child with hypoglycemia. How should this drug best be prepared for safe administration to the child?

Questions 16

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Pre-Assessment Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse receives a stat order to administer 50% dextrose solution intravenously to a 1-year-old child with hypoglycemia. How should this drug best be prepared for safe administration to the child?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose solution directly to a 1-year-old child is unsafe due to the risk of hyperosmolar injury to veins and tissues. Diluting it 1:1 with sterile water reduces the concentration to 25%, making it safer for pediatric administration. Using a filter needle (A) or tuberculin syringe (B) is not necessary for this preparation. Shaking the solution (D) is inappropriate and could introduce air bubbles.

Question 2 of 5

A 13-month-old child recently arrived in the United States from a foreign country with his parents and needs childhood immunizations. His mother reports that he is allergic to eggs. Upon further questioning, you determine that the allergy to eggs is anaphylaxis. Which of the following vaccines should he not receive?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The MMR vaccine is cultured in chick embryo fibroblasts and may contain trace amounts of egg protein, posing a risk to individuals with severe egg allergies. Hepatitis B, inactivated polio, and DTaP vaccines do not contain egg proteins and are safe for this child. Precautions should be taken, and the vaccine should be administered under medical supervision if absolutely necessary.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving IV heparin therapy for treatment of a pulmonary embolus. The patient is being converted to warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. The following questions relate nursing considerations when caring for this patient. Nursing considerations for conversion of IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy will include

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When converting a patient from IV heparin to oral warfarin (Coumadin) therapy, it is important to overlap the two therapies for at least 5 days. This is because warfarin takes time to reach its full anticoagulant effect, and the patient needs to be adequately anticoagulated during this transition period to prevent the risk of thrombosis. The INR should be closely monitored, and the IV heparin should be stopped once the INR is in the therapeutic range. Simply discontinuing IV heparin and starting oral warfarin immediately could result in a period of inadequate anticoagulation, which could be dangerous for the patient, especially when transitioning from treatment for a pulmonary embolus.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is monitoring for adverse effects in a patient who is receiving an amiodarone

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

The patient is discharged home and returns to the emergency department 4 days later. The patient is admitted to the ICU with acute decompensated HF with dyspnea at rest. The nurse anticipates administration of which medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Nesiritide, also known as Natrecor, is a medication commonly used in the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with dyspnea at rest. It is a recombinant form of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) which helps to improve cardiac function and alleviate symptoms of heart failure, such as dyspnea. Nesiritide works by promoting vasodilation and increasing diuresis, which can help reduce the workload on the heart and improve cardiac output. Therefore, in the case of a patient with acute decompensated heart failure and dyspnea at rest, the nurse would anticipate the administration of Nesiritide to help improve the patient's condition.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions