ATI RN
Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse receives a phone call from a patient at 36 weeks' gestation who states they are having right upper quadrant pain that penetrates to the upper back. What priority information does the nurse need to obtain from the patient? Select 3 that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct answers are A, B, and C. A is important to determine the onset and characteristics of the pain to assess for possible causes like pre-eclampsia. B is crucial to assess for signs of liver or gallbladder issues. C is important to rule out any potential infection like chorioamnionitis. D is not relevant to the presenting symptoms and does not provide information related to the patient's condition.
Question 2 of 5
What is the difference between a complete abortion and an incomplete abortion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in a complete abortion, the uterus is empty, indicating that all products of conception have been expelled. In contrast, in an incomplete abortion, some products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to ongoing bleeding and cramping. Choice B is incorrect because cervical dilation is not the defining factor between complete and incomplete abortions. Choice C is incorrect as both complete and incomplete abortions can present with symptoms of miscarriage. Choice D is incorrect because the method of fetal removal does not differentiate between complete and incomplete abortions.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in preeclampsia to prevent seizures/eclampsia. It works by reducing neuromuscular transmission and excitability, making it an effective anticonvulsant. Diuretics (A) help remove excess fluid, tocolytics (B) inhibit uterine contractions, and antihypertensives (D) lower blood pressure, but they do not address the primary purpose of using magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia, which is to prevent seizures.
Question 4 of 5
Which edema assessment score indicates edema of the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3. A score of 3 in edema assessment indicates significant edema in the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area. This score reflects a higher level of pitting edema, which is commonly observed in these areas in cases of fluid retention. Scores 1 and 2 are typically used to indicate mild to moderate edema in specific areas or generalized mild edema, not as extensive as described in the question. Score 4 would typically indicate severe edema involving not only the mentioned areas but also potentially other body parts. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate answer based on the extent and distribution of edema described in the question.
Question 5 of 5
A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: marginal. In placenta previa, when the placental edge just reaches the internal os, it is classified as marginal. This indicates that the placenta is close to, but not covering, the cervical os. Total previa covers the entire os, partial covers part of it, and low-lying indicates the placental edge is near the os but not reaching it. The key is to understand the specific location of the placental edge in relation to the internal os for each classification.