ATI RN
Nursing Process Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse practitioner assesses a client in the physician’s office. Which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the assessment findings of pericarditis, photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are classic manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Pericarditis can present as chest pain aggravated by deep breathing or lying flat, photosensitivity refers to skin rashes triggered by sunlight exposure, polyarthralgia involves joint pain in multiple joints, and painful mucous membrane ulcers are common in the mouth or nose. These findings align with the diagnostic criteria for SLE. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical presentation of SLE. Choice A includes facial erythema which is a common symptom, but the presence of profuse proteinuria, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss are not specific to SLE. Choices C and D include symptoms like weight gain, hypothermia, and edema which are not characteristic of SLE. In summary
Question 2 of 9
While interviewing an older female patient of Asian descent, the nurse notices that the patient looks at the ground when answering questions. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Recognize cultural differences in communication styles. In many Asian cultures, avoiding direct eye contact is a sign of respect, humility, or shyness. Step 2: Understand that the patient's behavior may not indicate depression but rather a cultural norm. Step 3: Adjust communication approach by respecting the patient's cultural preferences. Step 4: Building trust and rapport by acknowledging and accommodating cultural differences. Summary: Choice A is correct as it acknowledges and respects cultural differences. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider cultural aspects and may lead to misinterpretation and inappropriate actions.
Question 3 of 9
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: - Paraplegia refers to paralysis of the lower extremities. - The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating lower body involvement. - Option A is incorrect as it refers to quadriplegia. - Option B is incorrect as it refers to quadriplegia. - Option D is incorrect as it refers to hemiplegia.
Question 4 of 9
A 19 y.o. student develops trigeminal neuralgia. Which of the ff. actions will most likely aggravate her pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Eating. Chewing food can trigger trigeminal nerve pain due to the movement and pressure applied on the nerve. The other choices (A: Sleeping, B: Reading, D: Cooking) do not involve the same level of jaw movement and pressure on the trigeminal nerve, thus are less likely to aggravate the pain. Therefore, eating is the most likely action to worsen trigeminal neuralgia symptoms in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dysplasia refers to the alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. Dysplasia is an abnormal growth or development of cells that can be a precursor to cancer. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be seen in Papanicolaou tests. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an undifferentiated tumor, not dysplasia. Choice B is incorrect as it describes hyperplasia, not dysplasia. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to metaplasia, not dysplasia. In summary, dysplasia is specifically about the abnormal changes in the appearance and organization of differentiated cells, making choice D the correct definition.
Question 6 of 9
The nursing diagnosis Impaired Gas Exchange, prioritized by Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs, is appropriate for what level of needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Physiologic. Impaired Gas Exchange pertains to the basic physiological need for oxygenation, which is fundamental for survival. Maslow's hierarchy states that physiological needs are the most fundamental and must be met before progressing to higher-level needs. Safety, love and belonging, and self-actualization are higher-level needs compared to physiological needs. Therefore, Impaired Gas Exchange aligns with the physiological level of needs in Maslow's hierarchy.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse in the postoperative unit prepares to receive a client after a balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery. Which of the ff items of priority should the nurse keep at the bedside for such client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. A: Blood pressure apparatus is essential to monitor for any signs of bleeding or clot formation after carotid angioplasty. 2. B: IV infusion stand is important but not the priority for immediate postoperative monitoring. 3. C: Call bell is important for the client to call for assistance but not the priority for immediate postoperative care. 4. D: Endotracheal intubation is not necessary after a carotid angioplasty and is not a priority item for bedside care. Summary: Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for detecting complications post carotid angioplasty. IV stand, call bell, and endotracheal intubation are important but not the priority in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the ff adverse reactions may occur when a client is taking danazol (Danocrine) for fibrocystic breast disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Danazol is a synthetic steroid used to treat fibrocystic breast disease by suppressing ovulation and hormonal fluctuations. This leads to a decrease in menstrual bleeding, resulting in amenorrhea. Nausea and confusion are not common adverse reactions of danazol. Hypotension is also not associated with danazol use. In summary, amenorrhea is the expected side effect due to the drug's mechanism of action, making it the correct choice compared to the other options.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet helps stabilize blood sugar levels and prevents hypoglycemic episodes. Carbohydrates cause rapid spikes and drops in blood sugar, while protein helps maintain stable levels. Avoiding fasting also helps regulate blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect as increasing saturated fat and fasting can worsen hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as vitamins and iron do not directly address hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as relying on sugary foods like candy bars can lead to further blood sugar imbalances.