ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse plans to teach a class on anabolic steroids to a group of high school athletes. What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anabolic steroids, synthetic testosterone derivatives, suppress natural hormone production, including spermatogenesis, leading to infertility-a critical risk for young athletes to understand. They also impact the entire body, notably causing liver damage (e.g., hepatotoxicity or tumors), a systemic effect worth noting. However, while effective for muscle growth, weight training surpasses steroids in safety and sustainability, debunking the ‘most effective' claim. Aggression, or ‘roid rage,' is a well-documented behavioral change due to hormonal imbalance, making it another key point. Infertility stands out in education, as it's a direct, long-term consequence tied to reproductive health, resonating with teens' future planning, and is supported by evidence of testicular atrophy and reduced sperm count, distinguishing it from broader effects or myths about efficacy.
Question 2 of 9
The client receives beclomethasone (Beconase) intranasally as treatment for allergic rhinitis. He asks the nurse if this drug is safe because it is a glucocorticoid. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beclomethasone, an intranasal corticosteroid, treats allergic rhinitis with minimal systemic absorption, reducing risks like adrenal suppression seen with oral steroids. The response 'Intranasal glucocorticoids produce almost no serious adverse effects' reassures the client accurately, as side effects (e.g., nasal irritation) are mild and rare. Swallowing isn't a significant concern due to low bioavailability. Prolonged use might increase minor risks (e.g., epistaxis), but isn't the primary safety factor. Once-daily use aligns with dosing but doesn't define safety. The nurse's best response (A) addresses the client's fear with evidence-based reassurance, emphasizing the drug's localized action and safety profile.
Question 3 of 9
Of the following salicylates, which does not exhibit an analgesic effects:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Salicylic acid, which is the parent compound of the salicylate drug class, does not exhibit analgesic effects. In order to have analgesic effects, such as pain relief, salicylic acid needs to be modified into derivatives like acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin), sodium salicylate, salicylamide, and diflunisal. These derivatives possess analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties due to their ability to inhibit cyclooxygenase enzymes (COX) and subsequently decrease prostaglandin production.
Question 4 of 9
Amiodarone:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic that affects sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and calcium (Ca2+) channels, prolonging repolarization, so the statement excluding Ca2+ effects is false. It has antianginal effects by reducing myocardial oxygen demand through heart rate and afterload reduction, a true statement and its correct attribute. Its half-life is exceptionally long (weeks to months), not short, due to extensive tissue distribution, making that false. It decreases, not increases, peripheral resistance via vasodilation, so that's incorrect. It also affects the lungs, causing potential pulmonary toxicity, not minimal impact. The antianginal property is key to its use in angina alongside arrhythmias, reflecting its broad ion channel blockade and hemodynamic benefits, necessitating careful monitoring for side effects.
Question 5 of 9
Which antipsychotic has the most sedative potential and is sometimes questionably used as a hypnotic agent in certain clinical settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has strong histamine H1 antagonism, conferring potent sedation, especially at low doses. This property leads to off-label use as a hypnotic in insomnia, though controversial due to metabolic risks. Fluphenazine and haloperidol, high-potency first-generation drugs, lack sedation, focusing on D2 blockade. Thiothixene, mid-potency, has minimal sedative effects. Iloperidone is less sedating. Quetiapine's antihistaminic action, backed by clinical practice, makes it the most sedative antipsychotic, often leveraged for sleep despite primary indications.
Question 6 of 9
A 40-year-old patient experiencing periods of mania and periods of depression would most likely benefit from which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Carbamazepine, a mood stabilizer, treats bipolar mania/depression-per psychiatry-unlike atomoxetine (ADHD), amitriptyline (depression), or methylphenidate (ADHD). It fits cycles, per evidence.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse has a patient demonstrate self-administration of eyedrops. Place the steps in the order in which the patient will perform them.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order for self-administering eyedrops is: 1. Wash hands (g). 2. Remove the cap (d). 3. Gently shake the bottle to evenly distribute the drug (b). 4. Tilt the head backward and look upward (e). 5. Pull the lower lid away from the eye so that a pouch is formed (a). 6. Place the dropper just above the pouch without touching the tip to the eye or finger (f). 7. Gently squeeze one drop of medicine into the pouch (h). 8. Press a finger against the inner corner of the eye for 2 to 3 minutes (c). This sequence ensures proper administration and minimizes the risk of contamination or systemic absorption.
Question 8 of 9
When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse should use a - to -inch, 25- to 30-gauge needle to inject the medication into the subcutaneous tissue. This needle size is appropriate for delivering the medication effectively and safely in the subcutaneous layer rather than deeper into the muscle. Using the correct needle size helps ensure proper absorption and reduces the risk of complications such as bleeding or bruising at the injection site.
Question 9 of 9
Mannitol (Osmitrol), an osmotic diuretic, is contraindicated to which conditions? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mannitol is contraindicated in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma. It can exacerbate the condition by causing an increase in intraocular pressure, leading to potential vision damage or loss. Therefore, caution should be exercised and alternative treatments considered for patients with narrow-angle glaucoma when considering the use of mannitol.