ATI RN
Introduction to Professional Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse plans discharge teaching for a patient with chronic heart failure who has prescriptions for digoxin (Lanoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Notify the health care provider if nausea develops. This is important because nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, a potential side effect of digoxin. By promptly notifying the healthcare provider, appropriate action can be taken to prevent any serious complications. A: Limit dietary sources of potassium - This is not directly related to the medications prescribed and is not necessary for the patient's current condition. B: Take the hydrochlorothiazide at bedtime - Timing of hydrochlorothiazide administration is not as critical as monitoring for side effects or interactions with other medications. D: Take the digoxin if the pulse is below 60 beats/min - This instruction could lead to potential overdosing if the patient takes digoxin unnecessarily based solely on heart rate without considering other factors.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse teaches a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which statements related to nutrition would the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that do not apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because eating high-fiber foods may lead to bloating and increased gas, which can exacerbate symptoms of COPD. Step 1: High-fiber foods can be difficult to digest, causing discomfort for COPD patients. Step 2: This can lead to increased abdominal pressure, making breathing more challenging for those with COPD. Step 3: Therefore, it is important for COPD patients to avoid high-fiber foods to prevent worsening of symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all appropriate recommendations for a client with COPD to promote optimal nutrition and manage symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with bacterial pneumonia has coarse crackles and thick sputum. Which action should the nurse plan to promote airway clearance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help the patient to splint the chest when coughing. This action supports the patient in effectively clearing thick sputum by providing external support to the chest wall during the coughing effort. Splinting the chest can help increase the force of the cough and improve the effectiveness of clearing secretions. A: Restricting oral fluids during the day is incorrect as hydration is important in thinning sputum and promoting airway clearance. B: Encouraging pursed-lip breathing technique is helpful for some respiratory conditions, but it may not be as effective in promoting airway clearance in this case. D: Encouraging the patient to wear the nasal O2 cannula is important for oxygenation but does not directly address airway clearance.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has suffered a nasal fracture. Which assessment would the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Airway patency. Assessing airway patency is the priority in a client with a nasal fracture to ensure adequate oxygenation. If the airway is compromised, it poses a life-threatening risk and requires immediate intervention. Ensuring airway patency takes precedence over assessing facial pain, vital signs, or bone displacement, as these can be addressed once the airway is secured. Assessing vital signs may be important, but airway patency is the most critical initial assessment in this situation. Bone displacement and facial pain assessments are important but secondary to ensuring the client's ability to breathe effectively.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse assesses a client with asthma and notes bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that do not apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Tracheal deviation is not a typical assessment finding in a client with asthma. The presence of bilateral wheezing, decreased oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction suggests an exacerbation of asthma, not a condition that would cause tracheal deviation. Administering a salmeterol inhaler (choice A) is appropriate for managing asthma symptoms. Administering oxygen and placing the client on an oximeter (choice C) is also appropriate to monitor oxygen saturation levels. Performing peak expiratory flow readings (choice D) is a standard assessment tool for evaluating asthma severity. However, assessing the client for tracheal deviation (choice B) is not relevant to the management of asthma exacerbation and would not provide helpful information in this case.