ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse performs an intervention for a collaborative problem. Which type of intervention did the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interdependent. In this scenario, the nurse performed an intervention for a collaborative problem, which involves working together with other healthcare professionals to address the issue. Interdependent interventions require collaboration and communication among healthcare team members to achieve the best outcomes for the patient. Choice A (Dependent Nursing) refers to interventions that require an order from a healthcare provider. Choice B (Independent) involves nursing actions that the nurse can initiate without the need for a healthcare provider's order. Choice D (Physician-initiated) specifically denotes interventions initiated by a physician without direct involvement from the nurse. In this case, the nurse's intervention for a collaborative problem aligns with the definition of interdependent intervention, making it the correct choice.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse performing triage in an emergency room makes assessments of clients using critical thinking skills. Which of the following are critical thinking activities linked to assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because interviewing a client suspected of being a victim of abuse involves critical thinking in assessment by gathering relevant information, analyzing the situation, and making informed decisions. This activity helps identify potential risks and ensures the client's safety. On the other hand, options A and C involve implementing orders and diagnosing conditions, respectively, which are more related to clinical decision-making rather than assessment. Option B focuses on education, which is not directly linked to assessment activities.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Reyea has expressive aphasia. As a part of a long range planning. The nurse should ;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Positive reinforcement helps enhance communication skills in individuals with expressive aphasia. 2. Providing positive feedback when Mr. Reyea uses words correctly encourages him to continue trying to communicate. 3. It boosts his confidence and motivation, leading to improved verbal communication over time. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Waiting indefinitely for Mr. Reyea to verbally state his needs may lead to frustration and hinder effective communication. C. Suggesting permanent help at home assumes Mr. Reyea's condition cannot improve, which is not necessarily true for expressive aphasia. D. Helping the family accept Mr. Reyea's communication challenges does not actively support his communication improvement and may limit his progress.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is the medication of choice for anaphylaxis that the nurse should anticipate would be ordered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is the medication of choice due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It acts by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. This helps counteract the dangerous drop in blood pressure and airway constriction seen in anaphylaxis. Digoxin, theophylline, and furosemide are not appropriate for anaphylaxis as they do not address the immediate life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions would a nurse perform to avoid maceration from irritating drainage or the wound compresses in a client with breast abscess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply zinc oxide to the surrounding skin. This intervention helps create a protective barrier between the irritating drainage or wound compresses and the skin, thus preventing maceration. Zinc oxide has moisture-repelling properties that can help keep the skin dry and reduce the risk of maceration. Choice B (Using a binder) may not address the root cause of maceration and could potentially increase pressure on the wound site. Choice C (Supporting the arm and shoulder with pillows) may provide comfort but does not directly prevent maceration. Choice D (Instructing the client not to shave axillary hair) is unrelated to preventing maceration from irritating drainage or wound compresses.
Question 6 of 9
A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect, especially at higher doses. This is a known adverse reaction to Ketamine administration. Monitoring for muscle rigidity and spasms is important to ensure the safety of the client during and after surgery. Incorrect choices: B: Hiccups - Hiccups are not a common side effect of Ketamine administration. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine is not known to cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine typically does not cause respiratory depression, which is more commonly associated with other anesthetics like opioids. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the known side effects of Ketamine.
Question 7 of 9
In planning safe care for the older adult, which of the ff. conditions does the nurse recognize would not cause visual problems?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Arcus senilis. This condition does not cause visual problems in the older adult. Arcus senilis is a grayish-white ring around the cornea, which does not affect vision. Glaucoma, macular degeneration, and cataracts are conditions that can lead to visual impairment in older adults. Glaucoma is characterized by increased pressure in the eye, which can damage the optic nerve and lead to vision loss. Macular degeneration affects the central part of the retina, leading to blurred or distorted vision. Cataracts cause clouding of the lens, resulting in decreased vision. Therefore, Arcus senilis is the correct choice as it does not cause visual problems compared to the other conditions listed.
Question 8 of 9
Why should the nurse wake up a client who is to undergo an EEG at midnight?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because optimum sleep helps regulate breathing patterns during an EEG. Waking the client at midnight allows them to have a full night's rest, ensuring they are well-rested and their breathing is stable for accurate EEG results. Choice A is incorrect as excess sleep does not affect nervousness. Choice C is incorrect as waking the client does not help them fall asleep naturally during the EEG. Choice D is incorrect as headache prevention is not directly related to waking the client at midnight.
Question 9 of 9
A client has the following blood lab values: platelets 50,000/ul, RBC’s 3.5 (X 106), hemoglobin 10 g/dl, hematocrit 30 percent, WBCs 10,000/ul. Which nursing instruction should be included in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding precautions. With low platelets (50,000/ul), the client is at risk for bleeding. Platelets help with blood clotting, so precautions to prevent bleeding are essential. This includes avoiding activities that can cause injury, using a soft toothbrush, and reporting any signs of bleeding. Summary: B: Isolation to prevent infection - This is not related to the client's lab values. C: Seizure precautions - Not relevant to the client's lab values. D: Control of pain with analgesics - Pain management is not the priority given the client's lab values indicating a risk of bleeding.