ATI RN
Nursing Process Quizlet Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse performs an intervention for a collaborative problem. Which type of intervention did the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interdependent. In this scenario, the nurse performed an intervention for a collaborative problem, which involves working together with other healthcare professionals to address the issue. Interdependent interventions require collaboration and communication among healthcare team members to achieve the best outcomes for the patient. Choice A (Dependent Nursing) refers to interventions that require an order from a healthcare provider. Choice B (Independent) involves nursing actions that the nurse can initiate without the need for a healthcare provider's order. Choice D (Physician-initiated) specifically denotes interventions initiated by a physician without direct involvement from the nurse. In this case, the nurse's intervention for a collaborative problem aligns with the definition of interdependent intervention, making it the correct choice.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. Reyea has expressive aphasia. As a part of a long range planning. The nurse should ;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Positive reinforcement helps enhance communication skills in individuals with expressive aphasia. 2. Providing positive feedback when Mr. Reyea uses words correctly encourages him to continue trying to communicate. 3. It boosts his confidence and motivation, leading to improved verbal communication over time. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Waiting indefinitely for Mr. Reyea to verbally state his needs may lead to frustration and hinder effective communication. C. Suggesting permanent help at home assumes Mr. Reyea's condition cannot improve, which is not necessarily true for expressive aphasia. D. Helping the family accept Mr. Reyea's communication challenges does not actively support his communication improvement and may limit his progress.
Question 3 of 9
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. This test provides an average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, reflecting long-term glycemic control. It is a more reliable indicator compared to other options. A: Urine glucose level only shows current glucose levels and is not a reliable indicator of long-term control. B: Serum fructosamine level reflects blood glucose control over the past 2-3 weeks, not the 3-month period the client has been making efforts. C: Fasting blood glucose level gives a snapshot of the current glucose level, not long-term control like glycosylated hemoglobin does.
Question 4 of 9
What is the rationale for giving Mr. Franco frequent mouth care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because providing frequent mouth care to Mr. Franco is important to remove dried blood when the tongue is bitten during a seizure. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting oral hygiene. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary reason for mouth care in this case is to address the physical consequences of a seizure, such as tongue biting and potential injury, rather than thirst, tactile stimulation, or prevention of oral mucosal issues related to mouth breathing in a comatose patient.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been prescribed bumetanide (Bumex) every morning for control of hypertension. Which of the ff. statements indicates correct knowledge of the treatment regimen?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “I’ll take my medication in the morning, every morning.” This statement reflects understanding of the treatment regimen by indicating consistency in taking bumetanide for hypertension control. Taking the medication as prescribed is crucial for its effectiveness in managing blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sunbathing all day may not be advisable, especially if the patient is on medication. Choice B is incorrect as it implies no consideration for dietary restrictions that may be necessary with the medication. Choice D is incorrect as stopping medication once blood pressure decreases is not recommended and can lead to rebound hypertension.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is working with a dying client and his family. Which communication technique is most important to use?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active listening. Active listening involves fully concentrating, understanding, responding, and remembering what is being said. In end-of-life care, it is crucial to provide emotional support and create a safe space for clients and their families to express their thoughts and feelings. Active listening helps the nurse to establish trust, show empathy, and validate the emotions of the clients and their families. Reflection (A), Clarification (B), and Interpretation (C) may be beneficial in certain situations, but in end-of-life care, active listening plays a pivotal role in fostering meaningful and supportive communication.
Question 7 of 9
After the surgical incision has been clised and the anesthesia has wear-off, the patient is extubated and transferred to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). Who is responsible for transferring the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: anesthesiologist. The anesthesiologist is responsible for transferring the patient to the PACU as they are in charge of the patient's anesthesia management throughout the surgery. They are trained to assess the patient's condition post-surgery, manage any immediate postoperative complications, and ensure a smooth transition to the PACU staff for continued care. The circulating nurse (A) is responsible for managing the operating room environment, the scrub nurse (B) assists the surgeon during the surgery by passing instruments, and the surgeon (C) performs the surgical procedure but does not typically transfer the patient to the PACU.
Question 8 of 9
A client asks nurse Carlos the rationale for giving multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis. Which is an appropriate response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using multiple drugs for tuberculosis reduces the development of resistant strains of the bacteria. When multiple drugs are used simultaneously, it decreases the likelihood of the bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps to ensure that the treatment remains effective over time. Explanation for other choices: A: While using multiple drugs may allow for reduced dosages, the primary rationale is not solely to administer lower levels of drugs. B: Although using multiple drugs may help in managing side effects, the primary rationale is to prevent the development of resistant strains. C: While multiple drugs may have a synergistic effect, the main purpose is to prevent resistance rather than potentiate the action of individual drugs.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who is suspected of having hypothyroidism should be expected which of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, extreme fatigue, for a patient suspected of having hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is associated with decreased production of thyroid hormones, leading to a slower metabolism and reduced energy levels. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and lethargy. Tachycardia (A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid is overactive. Hyperthermia (B) is increased body temperature, not typically a symptom of hypothyroidism. Weight loss (C) is also more commonly seen in hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolism. In summary, extreme fatigue is a hallmark symptom of hypothyroidism due to decreased thyroid hormone levels, distinguishing it from the other choices.