ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse on the medicalsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing care to a culturally diversepopulation. Which action indicates the nurse is successful in the role of providing culturally congruent care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing care that fits the patient's valued life patterns and set of meanings demonstrates cultural congruence. This approach acknowledges and respects the patient's cultural background, beliefs, and preferences. It promotes patient-centered care and enhances communication and trust between the nurse and the patient. Choice B is incorrect because care based on predetermined criteria may not align with the patient's individual cultural needs. Choice C is incorrect as it does not prioritize the patient's values and preferences. Choice D is incorrect because providing care based solely on the values of the professional health care system may not consider the cultural diversity of the patient population.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient. Incorrect choices: A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans. B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis. D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has a diagnosis of hereditary angioedema. When planning this patients care, what nursing diagnosis should be prioritized?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for Impaired Gas Exchange Related to Airway Obstruction. This should be prioritized because hereditary angioedema can lead to swelling in the airway, potentially causing respiratory distress and compromising gas exchange. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate threat to the patient's respiratory function. A: Risk for Infection Related to Skin Sloughing - While skin sloughing can occur with hereditary angioedema, it is not the priority over ensuring adequate gas exchange. B: Risk for Acute Pain Related to Loss of Skin Integrity - Pain management is important, but addressing airway obstruction takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory compromise. C: Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Cutaneous Lesions - Skin integrity issues may be present but do not pose as immediate a threat as airway obstruction.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections. Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function. Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media. Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access