ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse notices that the mother of a 2-year-old boy brings him to the clinic quite frequently for various injuries and suspects there may be some child abuse involved. The nurse should inspect the young child for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums. This is the most relevant choice as it is a common sign of physical abuse in children. Bruising in unusual places or patterns, such as the mouth, should raise suspicion. Swollen, red tonsils (A) are more likely related to infection rather than abuse. Ulcerations on the hard palate (B) can also be due to various non-abuse related reasons. Small yellow papules along the hard palate (D) are typically harmless and not indicative of abuse. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of potential abuse and take appropriate action to protect the child.
Question 2 of 9
During the assessment of an infant, the nurse notes that the fontanelles are depressed and sunken. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dehydration. Depressed and sunken fontanelles in an infant indicate dehydration due to decreased fluid volume. Dehydration causes a decrease in tissue turgor, leading to the fontanelles appearing sunken. Rickets (A) is a condition characterized by weak or soft bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Mental retardation (C) is a developmental disorder, not related to fontanelle appearance. Increased intracranial pressure (D) would cause bulging fontanelles, not depressed fontanelles. Therefore, the most likely condition in this case is dehydration.
Question 3 of 9
A 92-year-old patient has had a stroke, and the right side of his face is drooping. What else would the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysphagia. In a stroke patient with right-sided facial drooping, dysphagia is highly likely due to the involvement of the facial nerve, leading to difficulty swallowing. Epistaxis (A) is nosebleeds, agenesis (B) is the absence of a body part, and xerostomia (D) is dry mouth, which are not directly related to facial drooping in stroke patients. Dysphagia is a common complication post-stroke due to impaired muscle control, making it the most likely concern for the nurse to suspect in this case.
Question 4 of 9
During the examination of a patient in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices that the patient's thyroid gland is slightly enlarged. No enlargement had been noted previously. The nurse suspects that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Enlargement of the thyroid gland during pregnancy is a normal finding due to hormonal changes. 2. The thyroid gland enlarges to meet the increased demands of thyroid hormone production. 3. This condition is known as gestational thyrotoxicosis and is usually benign. 4. No further testing is needed for thyroid cancer unless other concerning symptoms are present. Summary: A: Not relevant as iodine deficiency is not typically associated with thyroid enlargement in pregnancy. B: Incorrect as early signs of goitre would involve more pronounced symptoms than just slight enlargement. D: Unnecessary as thyroid cancer is not a common concern in this scenario of a slightly enlarged thyroid in the third trimester of pregnancy.
Question 5 of 9
When examining a patient's eyes, the nurse knows that stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in the elevation of the eyelid (ptosis) and dilation of the pupil (mydriasis). This is due to the action of the dilator pupillae muscle and the superior tarsal muscle. Pupillary constriction (choice A) is controlled by the parasympathetic branch via the sphincter pupillae muscle. Adjusting the eye for near vision (choice B) is controlled by the ciliary muscle, which is under parasympathetic control, not sympathetic. Contraction of the ciliary body (choice D) is also controlled by the parasympathetic system for accommodation of near vision, not the sympathetic system.
Question 6 of 9
When performing an otoscopic examination on a 5-year-old child with a history of chronic ear infections, the nurse sees that his right tympanic membrane is amber-yellow in colour and there are air bubbles behind the tympanic membrane. The child reports occasional hearing loss and a popping sound with swallowing. The preliminary analysis based on this information would be that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: this is most likely serous otitis media. In a child with chronic ear infections, amber-yellow tympanic membrane color and air bubbles suggest fluid accumulation behind the eardrum, characteristic of serous otitis media. The occasional hearing loss and popping sound with swallowing are also common symptoms. Serous otitis media is a non-infectious condition caused by Eustachian tube dysfunction. Choice B: Acute purulent otitis media presents with more severe symptoms like fever and severe ear pain, which are not mentioned in the case. Choice C: Cholesteatoma is a more serious condition characterized by a cyst-like growth in the middle ear, not just fluid accumulation as seen in this case. Choice D: Perforation typically presents with a visible hole in the eardrum and is not consistent with the findings of fluid and air bubbles in this case.
Question 7 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed pain in his left ear when people speak loudly to him. The nurse knows that this finding:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain in the ear when people speak loudly can be a sign of a middle ear infection. This is due to increased pressure in the middle ear caused by inflammation or fluid buildup. Recruitment (B) is a phenomenon related to hearing loss, not ear pain. Cerumen impaction (D) would not typically cause pain in response to loud sounds. It is not normal for a person of that age to experience ear pain when people speak loudly (A).
Question 8 of 9
A mother brings her 4-month-old to the clinic with concerns about a small padlike growth on the mid- upper lip that has been present since the baby was 1 month old. The infant has no health problems. On physical examination, the nurse notes a 5-cm, fleshy, elevated area on the mid-upper lip. There is no evidence of inflammation or drainage. What would the nurse tell this mother?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a sucking tubercle is a normal finding in infants caused by friction during breastfeeding or bottle feeding. The growth is typically painless, noninflammatory, and resolves on its own over time. This explanation reassures the mother that the condition is harmless and does not require any specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because teething does not cause a sucking tubercle. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of abnormality that warrants specialist evaluation. Choice C is incorrect because chronic drooling does not typically result in a sucking tubercle.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is preparing to do an otoscopic examination on a 2-year-old child. Which of the following reflects correct procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tilt the child's head slightly toward the examiner. This position straightens the ear canal, facilitating visualization. Pulling the pinna down (A) can cause discomfort and obstruct the view. Pulling the pinna up and back (B) is incorrect for a child under 3 years old as it straightens the ear canal in adults. Having the child touch his chin to his chest (D) is unnecessary and may lead to improper examination positioning.