ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.
Question 2 of 9
All of the following are contraindications when giving Immunization except:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. BCG vaccine can be given to a child with Hepatitis B, as there is no contraindication for this. Choice A, C, and D all present contraindications for administering immunizations. Choice A is incorrect because giving BCG vaccines to a child with AIDS is a contraindication. Choice C is incorrect as convulsions after the first DPT dose indicate a contraindication to subsequent doses. Choice D is incorrect because active convulsions or other neurological diseases are contraindications to receiving the DPT vaccine.
Question 3 of 9
Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the best answer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Sperm can no longer reach the ova because the fallopian tubes are blocked.' Tubal ligation works by blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because prostaglandins are not released from the cut fallopian tubes to kill sperm. Choice B is incorrect as the cervical entrance being blocked does not relate to tubal ligation. Choice D is incorrect because tubal ligation does not affect the release of ova from the ovary.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse cares for a hospitalized adolescent with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Which nursing goal is a priority for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the treatment of anorexia nervosa, stopping weight loss or restoring weight is a critical priority. This helps address the immediate health risks associated with severe malnutrition and supports the client's physical well-being. Encouraging effective coping skills, restoring normal eating habits, and promoting a realistic self-image are essential aspects of treatment but may come later in the care plan once the immediate risk of severe weight loss has been addressed.
Question 5 of 9
Which symptoms are associated with cancer of the colon?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct symptoms associated with cancer of the colon are blood in the stools, anemia, and 'pencil-shaped' stools. These symptoms are classic indicators of colorectal cancer. Choices A, B, and D do not typically present in colorectal cancer. Constipation, ascites, and mucus in the stool are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions. Diarrhea, heartburn, and eructation are not typical symptoms of colon cancer. Anorexia, hematemesis, and increased peristalsis are more indicative of other gastrointestinal issues and not specific to colon cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Which food is a high source of prebiotics?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Garlic is the correct answer. It is high in prebiotics, which are non-digestible fibers that promote the growth of beneficial gut bacteria. Chicken, white rice, and cheese are not significant sources of prebiotics. Chicken is a good source of protein, white rice is a carbohydrate, and cheese is a dairy product, none of which are high in prebiotics.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
What is the purpose of the cuff in a Tracheostomy tube?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of the cuff in a Tracheostomy tube is to separate the trachea from the esophagus. The cuff helps prevent aspiration by creating a seal that separates the trachea from the esophagus, reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the lungs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the cuff's primary function in a Tracheostomy tube is to prevent aspiration rather than separating the upper and lower airway, larynx from the nasopharynx, or securing the placement of the tube.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is being discharged with a vitamin K deficiency. What food should the nurse recommend to the patient to include in their diet?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is an excellent source of vitamin K, which plays a vital role in blood clotting and bone health. Oranges, fish, and nuts do not contain significant amounts of vitamin K, making them less suitable choices to address a vitamin K deficiency. Therefore, the correct recommendation for a patient with a vitamin K deficiency would be to include spinach in their diet to help replenish this essential vitamin.