ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse notes that a patient has a history of fibroids and is aware that this term refers to a benign tumor of the uterus. What is a more appropriate term for a fibroid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Leiomyoma. A leiomyoma is the medical term for a fibroid, which is a benign tumor of the uterus composed of smooth muscle tissue. This term is more appropriate as it specifically refers to fibroids. A: Bartholins cyst is a fluid-filled swelling in the Bartholin's gland, not related to fibroids. B: Dermoid cyst is a type of ovarian cyst containing tissues like hair, teeth, and skin, not related to fibroids. C: Hydatidiform mole is an abnormal growth of tissue in the uterus that forms during pregnancy, not related to fibroids.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the lesions clean and dry. This intervention helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Cleaning the lesions reduces the risk of secondary infections and discomfort. Keeping the area dry can also help alleviate pain and discomfort associated with moisture. Covering with a topical antibiotic (A) may not address pain directly and could potentially irritate the lesions. Applying a topical NSAID (C) may provide some pain relief but does not address the primary need to keep the lesions clean and dry. Remaining on bed rest (D) is not necessary for managing acute pain related to genital lesions.
Question 3 of 5
A 31-year-old patient has returned to the post-surgical unit following a hysterectomy. The patients care plan addresses the risk of hemorrhage. How should the nurse best monitor the patients postoperative blood loss?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Count and inspect each perineal pad that the patient uses. This method directly measures postoperative blood loss and allows for accurate monitoring. It provides quantitative data to assess the severity of hemorrhage. A: Having the patient void and have bowel movements using a commode rather than toilet does not directly measure blood loss and may not provide accurate monitoring. C: Swabbing the patient's perineum for the presence of blood is not as accurate as directly counting and inspecting perineal pads. D: Leaving the patient's perineum open to air does not provide a method for quantifying blood loss and may not be as reliable as inspecting perineal pads.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, performance of pelvic muscle exercises. Pelvic muscle exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles which support the bladder, uterus, and bowel. By strengthening these muscles, the risk of developing cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse postpartum is reduced. It is a proactive approach to prevent these conditions. Choice A, maintenance of good perineal hygiene, is important for preventing infections but does not specifically address the risk of pelvic organ prolapse. Choice B, prevention of constipation, is also important but does not directly target the muscle weakness that contributes to prolapse. Choice C, increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum, is not as effective in preventing prolapse as pelvic muscle exercises. In summary, pelvic muscle exercises are the most appropriate recommendation as they directly address strengthening the muscles that support the pelvic organs, reducing the risk of prolapse postpartum.
Question 5 of 5
A woman is being treated for a tumor of the left breast. If the patient and her physician opt for prophylactic treatment, the nurse should prepare the woman for what intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bilateral mastectomy. This intervention involves removing both breasts to reduce the risk of developing breast cancer in the future. For a woman with a history of breast cancer in one breast, opting for bilateral mastectomy can significantly decrease the likelihood of cancer recurrence. This proactive approach is often recommended for individuals with a high risk of developing breast cancer. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: More aggressive chemotherapy - Chemotherapy is typically used to treat existing cancer cells, not as a prophylactic measure to prevent cancer. B: Left mastectomy - This option only removes the affected breast, not addressing the risk of cancer developing in the other breast. C: Radiation therapy - While radiation therapy can be used as part of the treatment for breast cancer, it is not a prophylactic measure to prevent future cancer development in the contralateral breast.