ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse notes in the patient™s medication orders that the patient will be taking ibutilide (Corvert). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ibutilide (Corvert) is a class III antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter. It works by prolonging the action potential duration and refractory period of atrial tissue. Therefore, when a nurse notes that a patient will be taking ibutilide, it indicates that the patient likely has atrial fibrillation, a common arrhythmia characterized by rapid, irregular electrical activity in the atria of the heart.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rotating the application sites of transdermal patches is important to prevent skin irritation and enhance absorption efficiency. This practice helps to minimize skin irritation and allows the skin to recover between applications. By rotating the sites weekly, the client can ensure optimal medication delivery and reduce the risk of skin reactions at any specific application site. This indicates that the client understands the importance of proper patch placement and skin care.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, and the nurse monitors the patient for adverse effects. What is the most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most common undesirable effect of thrombolytic therapy is bleeding, both internal and superficial. Thrombolytic agents work by dissolving blood clots, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Patients receiving thrombolytic therapy should be closely monitored for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, hematomas, or gastrointestinal bleeding. It is essential for healthcare providers to assess and manage the risk of bleeding while administering thrombolytic therapy to minimize potential complications. Dysrhythmias, nausea and vomiting, and anaphylactic reactions are less common adverse effects of thrombolytic therapy compared to bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
Which drug type is often used as a first-line treatment for depression due to its side effect profile?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: SSRIs (e.g., fluoxetine) are first-line for depression-fewer side effects (e.g., no TCA sedation), per guidelines-versus MAOIs (diet risks), beta-blockers (HTN), or TCAs (anticholinergic). SSRIs' safety drives use.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following has the shortest elimination half-life?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elimination half-life measures how quickly a drug is cleared from plasma. Naloxone's half-life is about 1-2 hours, used for opioid reversal. Morphine's is 2-4 hours, reflecting its duration as an analgesic. Methadone's is long, 15-60 hours, suiting addiction maintenance. Fentanyl's is 2-4 hours, typical for anesthesia. Remifentanil, an ultra-short-acting opioid, has a half-life of 3-10 minutes due to rapid esterase metabolism, making it ideal for procedures needing quick offset. Its brevity contrasts with others, ensuring minimal residual effects, a key advantage in critical care settings where rapid recovery is essential.