The nurse manager is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign of this oncological emergency?

Questions 49

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Oncology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The nurse manager is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign of this oncological emergency?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Electrocardiographic changes. In clients with metastatic prostate cancer, hypercalcemia can lead to various signs and symptoms. Electrocardiographic changes are considered a late sign of hypercalcemia, indicating severe electrolyte imbalance. Headache (choice A), dysphagia (choice B), and constipation (choice C) are earlier signs of hypercalcemia and may precede the development of more severe symptoms like electrocardiographic changes.

Question 2 of 9

Nurse Jane is providing care for a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Which of the following interventions would be the priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed can help reduce the pressure on the superior vena cava, improve venous return, and facilitate breathing in clients with superior vena cava syndrome. Administering steroids (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority in the immediate care of a client with superior vena cava syndrome. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may help improve oxygenation but does not directly address the underlying issue of venous congestion. Administering diuretics (Choice D) may be contraindicated as it can further decrease preload and worsen the condition in superior vena cava syndrome.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.

Question 4 of 9

A client with cancer is receiving palliative care. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of palliative care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Palliative care focuses on managing symptoms and improving the quality of life for clients with serious illnesses like cancer. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care can be provided alongside curative treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to prolong life at all costs; it focuses on improving the quality of life. Choice D is partially correct but does not fully capture the essence of palliative care, which includes symptom management and holistic support for the client and their family.

Question 5 of 9

The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer. Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct choice is 'Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli' because fruits and vegetables have been shown to reduce the risk of cancer. Option A, smoked salmon and green beans, although a healthy choice, does not incorporate as many cancer-fighting foods as the correct answer. Option B, pork chops and fried green tomatoes, contains fried food which is associated with increased cancer risk. Option D, liver, onions, and steamed peas, includes organ meats which are not considered beneficial for reducing cancer risk.

Question 6 of 9

Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with myelofibrosis is being treated with ruxolitinib. What should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this treatment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit is essential to assess the effectiveness of ruxolitinib in treating myelofibrosis. Ruxolitinib works by inhibiting JAK1 and JAK2, which are involved in the signaling pathways that regulate blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels can provide valuable information on how well the drug is managing the disease. Blood pressure, white blood cell count, and spleen size are not direct indicators of the treatment's effectiveness in myelofibrosis.

Question 8 of 9

You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative. Palliative surgery is aimed at relieving symptoms and improving quality of life when a cure is not possible. In this scenario, where the cancer has recurred and metastasized, the goal of surgery would be to alleviate symptoms rather than to cure the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because reconstructive surgery aims to restore function or appearance, salvage surgery aims to remove or salvage tissue to prevent further complications, and prophylactic surgery aims to prevent the development of a condition rather than treat its progression.

Question 9 of 9

A client is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The nurse monitors the client for which of the following signs indicating a complication of the therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. A fever may indicate infection, a common and serious complication of chemotherapy, requiring prompt intervention. Choice A, Alopecia, is a common side effect of chemotherapy but not a sign of a complication. Choice B, Weight gain, is not typically a sign of a complication of chemotherapy. Choice D, Decreased hemoglobin level, may occur due to chemotherapy but is not a direct sign of a complication.

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