ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse learns about cultural issues involvedin the patient’s health care belief system and enables patients and families to achieve meaningful and supportive care. Which concept is the nurse demonstrating?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Culturally congruent care. This concept refers to providing care that aligns with the patient's cultural beliefs and practices. By learning about cultural issues and enabling patients to receive care that is meaningful and supportive within their cultural context, the nurse is demonstrating culturally congruent care. A: Marginalized groups - This refers to groups in society who are disadvantaged and face discrimination. While understanding cultural issues may be important when caring for marginalized groups, it is not the main concept demonstrated in this scenario. B: Health care disparity - This refers to differences in access to healthcare and health outcomes among different populations. While cultural competence can help address healthcare disparities, it is not the concept being demonstrated here. C: Transcultural nursing - This refers to providing care across different cultures. While related, it does not specifically address the nurse's role in understanding and enabling culturally appropriate care for individual patients and families.
Question 2 of 9
A student nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a wide excision of the vulva. The student should know that what action is contraindicated in the immediate postoperative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Application of compression stockings. Immediately after a wide excision of the vulva, compression stockings should be avoided as they can increase the risk of blood clots. Placing the patient in a low Fowler's position helps with comfort and promotes healing. Ambulation to a chair aids in preventing complications like pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. Providing a low-residue diet is appropriate postoperatively to prevent straining during bowel movements.
Question 3 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.
Question 4 of 9
The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse’s next action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate. This is important in assessing the well-being of the fetus during labor, especially in the presence of genital herpes lesions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate helps in detecting any signs of distress or compromise due to maternal infection. A: Asking about the patient's last intake is important but not the immediate priority when managing a patient with active genital herpes lesions in labor. B: Taking a culture of the lesions might be helpful but not the immediate action needed in this situation. C: Asking about unprotected sex is relevant but not as critical as monitoring the fetal well-being during labor in this scenario. Overall, the most critical action is to monitor the fetal heart rate for any signs of distress related to the maternal herpes infection.
Question 5 of 9
A patient diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma has arrived on the neurologic unit. When planning the patients care, the nurse should be aware that the effects of the tumor will primarily depend on what variable?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The specific hormones secreted by the tumor. Pituitary adenomas are known to secrete hormones that can lead to various endocrine disorders. Understanding the specific hormones secreted by the tumor is crucial in determining the clinical manifestations and planning appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary determinant of the effects of the tumor in this case is the hormonal activity rather than whether the tumor uses aerobic or anaerobic respiration, the patient's pre-existing health status, or whether the tumor is primary or metastatic.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Not until the drain is removed. After a mastectomy with immediate reconstruction, there is typically a drain in place to collect fluid. Showering before the drain is removed can increase the risk of infection and disrupt the healing process. It is important to wait until the healthcare provider removes the drain to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Summary: B: On the second postoperative day - Too early, the drain needs to be removed first. C: Now, if you wash gently with soap and water - Incorrect, the drain should be removed before showering. D: Seven days after your surgery - Incorrect, waiting for a specific number of days is not necessary, it depends on when the drain is removed.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the health history of a newly admitted patient and reads that the patient has been previously diagnosed with exostoses. How should the nurse accommodate this fact into the patients plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Exostoses are bony growths in the external auditory canal. 2. These growths can cause narrowing and obstruction of the canal, affecting hearing. 3. Collaborating with the pharmacist to assess for ototoxic medications is crucial to prevent further hearing impairment. 4. Performing Rinne and Weber tests (choice A) and arranging audiometry testing (choice B) are not directly related to exostoses. 5. Ignoring exostoses (choice D) can lead to worsening hearing loss and potential complications.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling. A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures. C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy. D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.