ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse leading an educational session is describing self-examination of the breast. The nurse tells the womens group to raise their arms and inspect their breasts in a mirror. A member of the womens group asks the nurse why raising her arms is necessary. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It helps to spread out the fat that makes up your breast. Raising the arms during breast self-examination stretches the breast tissue, making it easier to detect any lumps or abnormalities. This action also helps to distribute the breast tissue evenly, providing a clearer view of the entire breast. This method ensures a more thorough examination and increases the chances of detecting any changes in the breast tissue early on. Summary of incorrect choices: B: It allows you to simultaneously assess for pain - Although assessing for pain is important, raising the arms specifically helps with spreading out the breast tissue, not necessarily for assessing pain. C: It will help to observe for dimpling more closely - While observing for dimpling is important, raising the arms is primarily for spreading out the breast tissue, not for observing dimpling. D: This is what the American Cancer Society recommends - While recommendations from reputable sources are important, the rationale behind raising the arms during breast self-examination is not solely
Question 2 of 9
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 3 of 9
A new mother who is breastfeeding calls the clinic to speak to a nurse. The patient is complaining of pain in her left breast and describes her breast as feeling doughy. The nurse tells her to come into the clinic and be checked. The patient is diagnosed with acute mastitis and placed on antibiotics. What comfort measure should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Perform gentle massage to stimulate neutrophil migration. Gentle massage helps to promote drainage of the infected area by stimulating neutrophil migration, which aids in fighting the infection. This can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with acute mastitis. Cold compresses (choice A) may provide some relief, but they do not address the underlying issue of promoting neutrophil migration. Avoiding washing the breasts (choice C) is not recommended as maintaining good hygiene is important in preventing further infections. Avoiding wearing a bra (choice B) may not directly address the infection and may not be practical for the patient's daily activities.
Question 4 of 9
In providing diabetic teaching for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which instructions will the nurse provide to the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Saturated fat should be limited to less than 7% of total calories. This is because limiting saturated fat intake is crucial in managing type 1 diabetes to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Saturated fats can worsen insulin resistance and lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as diabetic management involves more than just insulin. Choice C is incorrect because nonnutritive sweeteners should be used in moderation due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with diabetes should aim to keep cholesterol intake low to prevent heart problems.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the patient is resting. This is because the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease is most noticeable when the patient is at rest due to the characteristic "resting tremor" seen in this condition. The tremor tends to lessen or disappear with purposeful movements or activities, making it more difficult to assess during ambulation, meal preparation, or occupational therapy. By observing the patient at rest, the nurse can accurately assess the presence and severity of the tremor, which is a key diagnostic feature of Parkinson's disease. Other answer choices are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal condition for assessing the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease.
Question 6 of 9
An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and comprehensive response to the pregnant patient's question about the risk of her baby being born with HIV. Here's the step-by-step rationale: 1. Option D acknowledges the possibility of the baby contracting HIV at different stages: before, during, or after delivery. This covers all potential scenarios and educates the patient about the risks. 2. By mentioning the different possible transmission times, the nurse highlights the importance of proper prenatal care, delivery planning, and postnatal care to minimize the risk of HIV transmission to the baby. 3. This response empowers the patient with knowledge about the potential risks and emphasizes the importance of seeking appropriate medical interventions to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. 4. In contrast, options A, B, and C provide less informative or inaccurate responses that do not address the patient's concerns adequately, making them incorrect choices. In summary, option D is the best response as it educates the patient about the risks of HIV transmission
Question 7 of 9
Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teaching patients to wear sunscreen, which is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs by addressing risk factors. In this case, teaching patients to wear sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer by reducing exposure to harmful UV rays. Yearly Pap tests (A) are a secondary prevention measure for cervical cancer, detecting precancerous changes. Testicular self-examination (B) is a form of secondary prevention for testicular cancer, aiming to detect any abnormalities early. Screening mammograms (D) are also a secondary prevention measure for breast cancer, detecting tumors at an early stage.
Question 8 of 9
A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because acknowledging the patient's fear validates their emotions, builds trust, and shows empathy. This can help the patient feel understood and supported during a vulnerable time. Choice B is incorrect because discussing support groups may not address the patient's immediate emotional needs. Choice C is incorrect because assessing stress management skills may not be the priority at this moment when the patient is visibly tense. Choice D is incorrect because documenting a nursing diagnosis should come after addressing the patient's immediate emotional state.
Question 9 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.