ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse knows which of the following is true about immunity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Answer C: Antibodies are produced by the B-cells. B-cells are a type of lymphocyte that differentiate into plasma cells, which are responsible for producing antibodies in response to antigens. This process is a key component of the humoral immune response. Therefore, the statement that antibodies are produced by the B-cells is true. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Antibody-mediated defense occurs through the B-cell system, not the T-cell system. T-cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity. B: Cellular immunity is mediated by T-cells, not antibodies produced by B-cells. D: Lymphocytes increasing with an allergic response is not directly related to the production of antibodies by B-cells. Allergic responses involve a different mechanism.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. Boy, a 65-year old man, has been admitted wth severe flame burns resulting from smoking in bed. The nurse can expect his room environment to include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a semi-private room. For a burn patient like Mr. Boy, a semi-private room is preferred to provide a more controlled environment for infection prevention, wound care, and privacy. Strict isolation (A) is not necessary as his burns are not infectious. Liberal visiting (C) can increase the risk of infection and compromise his recovery. Sharing equipment (D) can lead to cross-contamination and is not recommended for burn patients. In summary, a semi-private room balances infection control and patient comfort for burn patients.
Question 3 of 9
A client who has been taking prednisone to treat lupus erythematosus has discontinued the medication because of lack of funds to buy the drug. When the nurse becomes aware of the situation, which assessment is most important for the nurse to make first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Blood pressure is vital in this scenario due to prednisone discontinuation. 2. Abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal insufficiency can cause hypotension, a life-threatening condition. 4. Monitoring blood pressure can help detect and manage potential complications. Summary of other choices: A: Breath sounds – Important but not the priority in this specific situation. C: Capillary refill – Useful for assessing circulation but not urgent in this context. D: Butterfly rash – A characteristic of lupus, but not a critical concern in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
The lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of diabetes is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (126mg/dl) because a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126mg/dl is diagnostic of diabetes. The diagnostic criteria for diabetes include a fasting plasma glucose level ≥126mg/dl on two separate occasions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. A (90mg/dl) is within the normal range, C (115mg/dl) is elevated but not diagnostic, and D (180mg/dl) is too high but not necessary for diagnosis. It's crucial to understand the specific diagnostic criteria to accurately identify diabetes.
Question 5 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following terms indicates that the patient has a hearing loss caused by aging?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presbycusis. Presbycusis refers to age-related hearing loss, commonly affecting higher frequencies. As people age, changes in the inner ear structures can lead to hearing loss. Otoplasty (A) is a surgical procedure to correct ear deformities, not related to aging. Otalgia (C) refers to ear pain, not specifically related to aging. Tinnitus (D) is the perception of ringing or buzzing in the ears, which can occur at any age and is not exclusive to age-related hearing loss.
Question 7 of 9
A factory worker suffered a chemical burn to the eye and arrives at the Emergency department. What is the first action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: flush the eye continuously with sterile solution. This is the first action because it helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Flushing with sterile solution dilutes and washes away the chemical, reducing the risk of ongoing injury. Applying a cold compress (A) may help with pain but does not address the chemical exposure. Applying a bandage (B) can trap the chemical and worsen the injury. Performing an assessment (C) should come after immediate treatment to ensure proper care but should not delay flushing the eye.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. In the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to form a comprehensive database about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it provides the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities of patient care (C) is part of the third phase (planning), and determining whether outcomes have been achieved (D) is in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database in the first phase ensures a thorough understanding of the patient's needs before proceeding to the next steps in the nursing process.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? In the PQRST mnemonic, "P" stands for provocation, "Q" for quality, "R" for region/radiation, "S" for severity, and "T" for timing. The question "Where is the pain located?" corresponds to the "R" component, which is region/radiation. This question helps the nurse identify the specific area where the pain is localized, which can provide valuable information for diagnosis. Explanation of other choices: B: What causes the pain? This question relates more to the "P" component, which is provocation, rather than the region/radiation aspect. C: Does it come and go? This question pertains to the "T" component, which is timing, focusing on the pattern of the pain rather than the specific location. D: What does the pain feel like? This question is more aligned with the "Q" component, which is quality,