ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse knows that the diagnosis of contact latex allergy is based on history and ____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnosis of contact latex allergy is primarily based on the patient's history of exposure to latex-containing products and the development of symptoms upon contact with latex. To confirm the diagnosis, skin patch testing is performed. Skin patch testing exposes the skin to small amounts of latex allergens to observe for any localized allergic reaction, such as redness, swelling, or itchiness. This test helps determine if the individual has developed a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to latex. Latex-specific IgE testing (choice A) and finding IgE in serum (choice B) are methods used in diagnosing immediate-type latex allergy but are not sufficient for confirming contact latex allergy specifically. ELISA (choice D) is a type of laboratory technique used for various purposes, including measuring the levels of specific substances in the blood, but it is not typically used as a diagnostic tool for contact latex allergy.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described in the question is most consistent with anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia in the affected eye. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (reddening of the conjunctiva and episclera), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light (miosis). This occurs due to inflammation within the anterior chamber of the eye involving the iris and ciliary body.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following health teaching concern for the nurse as discharged plan for suicidal patient who had been taking tricyclic antidepressant drugs for 2 weeks and now ready to go home?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When discharging a suicidal patient who has been taking tricyclic antidepressant drugs, it is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the risk for suicide by overdose of the medication. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose can be quite small. This makes them particularly dangerous in cases of overdose, as they can lead to severe toxic effects, including cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a history of heart failure presents with dependent edema in the lower extremities. Which nursing action is most appropriate for managing the patient's edema?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action for managing a patient with dependent edema in the lower extremities is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics help the body remove excess fluid, reducing swelling and edema in the extremities. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's orders for administering diuretics to ensure the patient's fluid balance is managed effectively. While elevating the legs above heart level and applying compression stockings may provide temporary relief, addressing the underlying cause of fluid retention with diuretics is essential for long-term management of the edema in a patient with heart failure. Encouraging increased fluid intake would not be appropriate in this case, as the focus should be on reducing fluid overload rather than increasing fluid intake.
Question 5 of 9
A patient expresses frustration with the lack of information provided by the healthcare team. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation would be to listen actively to the patient's concerns, acknowledge the lack of information, and offer to address the issue. It is important for healthcare providers to validate the patient's feelings and actively work towards resolving any issues that are causing frustration. By being empathetic and willing to address the problem, the nurse can help improve the patient's experience and build trust in the healthcare team. Dismissing or ignoring the patient's frustration can lead to further dissatisfaction and breakdown in communication. It is crucial for healthcare providers to prioritize open communication and address any concerns or lack of information promptly.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is an INDICATOR of effective communication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Feedback is an essential indicator of effective communication because it allows the sender to understand how the message was received by the receiver. It provides an opportunity to clarify any misunderstandings, confirm understanding, and ensure that the communication has been successful. Without feedback, the sender cannot be sure if their message was accurately understood or if further explanation or clarification is needed. Effective communication involves a two-way exchange, and feedback plays a crucial role in ensuring that the message is effectively transmitted and received.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign neoplasms that can present as painless, well-defined nodules usually located in the lower pole of the thyroid gland or in close proximity, such as the lateral aspect of the neck above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology of a parathyroid adenoma typically reveals polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm, often referred to as chief cells. This is key in differentiating it from other conditions mentioned in the question.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following actions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a suspected stroke?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Activating emergency medical services (EMS) for rapid transport to a stroke center is the most appropriate action for managing a conscious patient with a suspected stroke. Time is critical in stroke care, and receiving specialized treatment at a stroke center as soon as possible can significantly improve outcomes for stroke patients. EMS providers are trained to recognize the signs of stroke and can begin essential pre-hospital care measures while en route to the hospital. Administering aspirin immediately is not recommended without medical evaluation, as certain types of strokes (such as hemorrhagic strokes) can be worsened by aspirin. Placing the patient in a supine position may not be ideal, as maintaining an elevated position can help prevent aspiration in stroke patients. Encouraging the patient to eat and drink is not appropriate, as swallowing difficulties are common in stroke patients and can lead to aspiration pneumonia.
Question 9 of 9
This condition has difficulty in progressing stimuli and new information. Alzheimer`s is the most common form of which of these?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia. Dementia is a general term for a decline in mental ability that becomes severe enough to interfere with daily life. It can affect memory, thinking skills, and the ability to perform everyday tasks. Alzheimer's disease specifically is a progressive brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and eventually impairs the ability to carry out simple tasks. Therefore, the provided condition of having difficulty in processing stimuli and new information aligns with the symptoms commonly seen in individuals with Alzheimer's disease.