ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse knows that the diagnosis of contact latex allergy is based on history and ____.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The diagnosis of contact latex allergy is primarily based on the patient's history of exposure to latex-containing products and the development of symptoms upon contact with latex. To confirm the diagnosis, skin patch testing is performed. Skin patch testing exposes the skin to small amounts of latex allergens to observe for any localized allergic reaction, such as redness, swelling, or itchiness. This test helps determine if the individual has developed a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to latex. Latex-specific IgE testing (choice A) and finding IgE in serum (choice B) are methods used in diagnosing immediate-type latex allergy but are not sufficient for confirming contact latex allergy specifically. ELISA (choice D) is a type of laboratory technique used for various purposes, including measuring the levels of specific substances in the blood, but it is not typically used as a diagnostic tool for contact latex allergy.
Question 2 of 9
Lillian asks the nurse the cause of this ailment. Which of the following would the nurse explain as predisposing factors of mastitis? (Select all that apply) I. Milk stasis II. Nipple trauma III. Using alcohol in cleaning nipples IV. Baby 's sitting position
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mastitis is typically caused by bacterial infection, with predisposing factors including milk stasis (I) and nipple trauma (II). Milk stasis occurs when milk is not effectively removed from the breast, leading to a build-up that can block ducts and predispose to infection. Nipple trauma, such as cracks or damage, can provide entry points for bacteria to infect the breast tissue. Factors like using alcohol in cleaning nipples (III) and the baby's sitting position (IV) are not directly associated with the development of mastitis.
Question 3 of 9
Which is a common verbalization of the patient with GBS regarding the EARLY ONSET of symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) is characterized by ascending motor weakness, starting typically in the lower extremities and progressing upwards. Patients with GBS often verbalize the early onset of symptoms as weakness starting in the legs and potentially spreading to involve the arms and sometimes the face. Therefore, the common verbalization of the patient with GBS regarding the early onset of symptoms is ascending motor weakness. Acute hemiplegia (choice A) and acute hemiparesis (choice D) involve weakness or paralysis typically limited to one side of the body, which is not a characteristic presentation of GBS. Weakness of the four lower extremities (choice C) is also not a typical description in GBS as the weakness usually starts distally and progresses proximally.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following are essential components of informed consent? I. explanation of the procedure and alternatives to the procedure II. discussion of potential risks and benefits of the procedure III. confirmation that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and any alterations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the components -explanation of the procedure and alternatives to the procedure (I), discussion of potential risks and benefits of the procedure (II), and confirmation that the patient understands the risks, benefits, and any alterations (III) -are essential parts of informed consent. Providing information about the procedure and its alternatives, disclosing potential risks and benefits, and ensuring that the patient comprehends this information are crucial to obtaining valid informed consent prior to any medical procedure.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals granulomatous inflammation and multinucleated giant cells. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subacute thyroiditis is an inflammatory disorder of the thyroid gland that causes gland destruction and release of pre-formed thyroid hormone leading to hyperthyroidism. The fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings of granulomatous inflammation and multinucleated giant cells are characteristic of subacute thyroiditis. This condition typically presents with a painful, tender thyroid gland and may be preceded by a viral illness. Unlike Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune disorder resulting in hyperthyroidism with diffuse goiter and positive thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins, subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limited and resolves spontaneously without the need for long-term treatment.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Rona and her team has been utilizing the EEPIDEMIOLOGIC TRIAD model - identifying causative factors of diseases. Which of the following is not relevant this, model?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Epidemiologic Triad model focuses on identifying the causative factors of diseases, particularly infectious diseases. The three components of the triad are the external agent, the susceptible host, and the environment. These factors interact to result in the occurrence of disease. Treatment Regimen, on the other hand, is not one of the causative factors but rather a response to manage and treat the disease once it has occurred. While treatment is essential, it is not part of the factors that contribute to the initial development of the disease within the Epidemiologic Triad model.
Question 7 of 9
Cell-mediated immunity is NOT usually associated with what condition:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cell-mediated immunity is a type of immune response that involves the activation of cytotoxic T cells and other immune cells to directly target and destroy infected or abnormal cells. It does not involve the production of antibodies, which are the primary component of humoral immunity. Antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for targeting extracellular pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. In contrast, cell-mediated immunity is more focused on targeting intracellular pathogens, cancerous cells, and other cells that have been compromised. So, production of antibodies is not usually associated with cell-mediated immunity.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following give meaning and context to the message?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In order to understand and interpret a message accurately, it is essential to consider the context in which it was delivered. Context provides the necessary background information, setting, and circumstances that give meaning and relevance to the message being communicated. Without context, it can be challenging to fully grasp the intention and significance of the communication. While the other options (process, phrases and sentences, thoughts and feelings) play roles in communication, it is the context that ultimately helps to give meaning and context to the message being conveyed.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Angie added that oral contraceptives also contains progesterone. Which of the following is the action of progesterone in contraception? It inhibits _______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Progesterone in oral contraceptives works primarily by inhibiting ovulation. It suppresses the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland, which is essential for triggering the release of an egg (ovulation) from the ovary. By blocking ovulation, progesterone helps prevent pregnancy by making it less likely for a mature egg to be available for fertilization. This mechanism of action is a key factor in the effectiveness of progesterone-containing contraceptives in preventing pregnancy.