ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted" reflects a need for further teaching. Potassium should always be diluted before administration to prevent irritation of the veins and potential adverse effects, such as phlebitis or tissue damage. Diluting the medication helps to reduce the risk of complications, making it safer for the patient. Therefore, the correct approach is to dilute intravenous potassium before administering it to the patient.
Question 2 of 5
If you are treating a patient that has renal failure, what type of pain medications should you avoid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When treating a patient with renal failure, it is important to avoid NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) as pain medications. NSAIDs can worsen renal function and may cause further damage to the kidneys. They can also lead to complications such as fluid retention, elevated blood pressure, and electrolyte imbalances in patients with renal failure. Instead, other types of pain medications such as opioids and nonopioids (e.g., acetaminophen) may be considered for pain management in patients with renal failure. Short-acting analgesics should also be utilized cautiously in this population, considering the potential clearance and metabolism issues due to decreased renal function.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant pain. Physical exam reveals rebound tenderness and decreased bowel sounds. An emergent appendectomy is performed. Postsurgically, he is given an NSAID along with morphine for pain control. Which of the following NSAIDs is commonly used as an adjunct to opioids postsurgically?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Post-appendectomy pain management often combines opioids like morphine with NSAIDs for synergy. Acetaminophen is an analgesic but not a true NSAID (lacks significant anti-inflammatory action). Celecoxib , a COX-2 inhibitor, is less common acutely due to cost and milder effect. Ibuprofen is effective but less potent parenterally. Ketorolac , a potent NSAID, is widely used postsurgically-available IV/IM, it reduces inflammation and pain, complementing morphine's central action. Naproxen (E) is oral, less ideal acutely. Ketorolac's rapid onset and efficacy in reducing opioid requirements make it standard. Its short-term use minimizes GI risks, aligning with surgical protocols, distinguishing it from other options for acute postoperative pain control.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is receiving TPN at home. The visiting nurse assists the family with the care plan, which includes changing the TPN solution and tubing. What is the recommended initial frequency for changing the tubing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection and maintain sterility. Longer intervals (B, C, D) increase the risk of bacterial contamination and sepsis.
Question 5 of 5
The patient has been depressed, and the physician plans to begin treatment with an antidepressant medication. In performing the initial assessment, what is the most important question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Before starting antidepressants, assessing for suicidal ideation is critical because depression carries a high suicide risk, and some antidepressants, especially SSRIs, may initially increase this risk in vulnerable patients. This safety concern trumps other questions in urgency, as it directly impacts immediate care planning—potentially requiring closer monitoring or hospitalization. Alcohol use affects treatment efficacy but isn't the primary safety issue. Allergies are important for drug selection but secondary to life-threatening risks. Duration of depression informs chronicity, not acute danger. The nurse must prioritize identifying suicidal thoughts to ensure patient safety, aligning with psychiatric protocols and the therapeutic delay of antidepressants (2-6 weeks), making choice D the most essential question in this context.