ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse gathers a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status. This includes collecting subjective and objective data to form a baseline for further decision-making. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities of patient care (C) is part of the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes (D) is done in the final phase (evaluation). Therefore, completing a comprehensive database is the most appropriate action in the first phase.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff conditions is evident by persistent hoarseness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal cancer. Persistent hoarseness is a common symptom of laryngeal cancer due to vocal cord involvement. Laryngeal cancer causes changes in voice quality over time. Bacterial infection (A) usually presents with acute symptoms and resolves with treatment. Aphonia (B) is the complete loss of voice, not persistent hoarseness. Peritonsillar abscess (D) causes sore throat and difficulty swallowing, but not persistent hoarseness.
Question 3 of 9
A client is being returned to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client’s bedside?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Tracheostomy set Rationale: 1. Immediate airway management: After thyroidectomy, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling or bleeding. Tracheostomy set ensures immediate access to secure the airway. 2. Emergency intervention: In case of respiratory distress or airway obstruction post-surgery, a tracheostomy set allows for prompt and effective intervention. 3. Patient safety and priority: Ensuring airway patency is crucial for the client's survival and takes precedence over other equipment. Summary of other choices: A: Indwelling urinary catheter kit - Not directly related to post-thyroidectomy care. B: Cardiac monitor - Important but secondary to airway management in this situation. D: Humidifier - Not essential for immediate post-thyroidectomy care.
Question 4 of 9
A client in the terminal stage of cancer is receiving continuous infusion of morphine (Duramorph) for pain management. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac
Question 5 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.
Question 6 of 9
A patient was recently diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse and the patient have established a goal that the patient will not experience shortness of breath with activity in 3 days with an expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. Which evaluative measure will the nurse use to demonstrate progress toward this goal?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct evaluative measure is D: Lungs clear to auscultation following use of inhaler. This choice aligns with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. By using an inhaler to clear the lungs, the nurse can assess if the expected outcome is being met. This measure directly evaluates the presence of secretions in the lungs, in line with the established goal. Incorrect Choices: A: No sputum or cough present in 4 days - This measure does not align with the expected outcome of having no secretions present in the lungs in 48 hours. B: Congestion throughout all lung fields in 2 days - This indicates a worsening condition and does not demonstrate progress towards the goal. C: Shallow, fast respirations 30 breaths per minute in 1 day - This measure is unrelated to the presence of secretions in the lungs and the goal of avoiding shortness of breath with activity.
Question 7 of 9
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct: 1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV. 2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners. 3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV. 4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission. Summary: - Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV. - Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Proper positioning helps maintain alignment and prevent deformities in muscles and joints. Step 2: It reduces the risk of contractures by ensuring that Mr. Gabatan's lower extremities are in optimal positions. Step 3: This promotes circulation and reduces pressure on bony prominences. Step 4: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity, tilt board may not address positioning adequately, and deep massage may not prevent contractures effectively.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following lab value profiles should the nurse know to be consistent with hemolytic anemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for the correct answer (A): 1. Increased RBC: Hemolytic anemia leads to increased RBC production as the body compensates for the destruction of red blood cells. 2. Decreased bilirubin: Bilirubin levels decrease due to the accelerated breakdown of red blood cells. 3. Decreased Hgb and Hct: Hemolysis causes a decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels as red blood cells are destroyed. 4. Increased reticulocytes: Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells released by the bone marrow in response to increased RBC destruction. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to increased, not decreased, bilirubin levels. - Choice C is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would lead to decreased, not increased, Hgb and Hct levels. - Choice D is incorrect as hemolytic anemia would not lead to increased levels of all parameters