ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. During the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to establish a comprehensive database of the patient's health status. This information serves as the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities (C) in the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes achieved (D) in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database is crucial in the initial assessment phase to gather accurate information for the subsequent steps in the nursing process.
Question 2 of 9
A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.
Question 3 of 9
Several hours after returning from surgery, the nurse tells the patient that she is ordered to be ambulated. The patient asks, “Why?” Which of the following complications would the nurse correctly explain can be prevented by early postoperative ambulation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pneumonia. Early postoperative ambulation helps prevent pneumonia by promoting lung expansion, increasing oxygenation, and preventing atelectasis. A: Increased peristalsis is unrelated to ambulation. B: Coughing is important for airway clearance but not directly related to ambulation. D: Wound healing is influenced by various factors, but ambulation primarily impacts respiratory function.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the ff conditions is evident by persistent hoarseness?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal cancer. Persistent hoarseness is a common symptom of laryngeal cancer due to vocal cord involvement. Laryngeal cancer causes changes in voice quality over time. Bacterial infection (A) usually presents with acute symptoms and resolves with treatment. Aphonia (B) is the complete loss of voice, not persistent hoarseness. Peritonsillar abscess (D) causes sore throat and difficulty swallowing, but not persistent hoarseness.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment using the PQRST to obtain data about the patient’s chest pain. Match the questions to the components of the PQRST that the nurse will be using.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Where is the pain located? In the PQRST mnemonic, "P" stands for provocation, "Q" for quality, "R" for region/radiation, "S" for severity, and "T" for timing. The question "Where is the pain located?" corresponds to the "R" component, which is region/radiation. This question helps the nurse identify the specific area where the pain is localized, which can provide valuable information for diagnosis. Explanation of other choices: B: What causes the pain? This question relates more to the "P" component, which is provocation, rather than the region/radiation aspect. C: Does it come and go? This question pertains to the "T" component, which is timing, focusing on the pattern of the pain rather than the specific location. D: What does the pain feel like? This question is more aligned with the "Q" component, which is quality,
Question 6 of 9
The best way to tell whether or not a patient is breathing, is for the nurse to watch the movement of the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Chest and nostrils." This is because observing the movement of the chest and nostrils is the most reliable way to determine if a patient is breathing. The chest rises and falls with each breath, and the nostrils may flare or move as air is inhaled and exhaled. Monitoring these areas provides a direct indication of respiratory effort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the act of breathing. Extremities, head, and eyeball movements are not reliable indicators of breathing function.
Question 7 of 9
A client who has been taking prednisone to treat lupus erythematosus has discontinued the medication because of lack of funds to buy the drug. When the nurse becomes aware of the situation, which assessment is most important for the nurse to make first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B being correct: 1. Blood pressure is vital in this scenario due to prednisone discontinuation. 2. Abruptly stopping prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency. 3. Adrenal insufficiency can cause hypotension, a life-threatening condition. 4. Monitoring blood pressure can help detect and manage potential complications. Summary of other choices: A: Breath sounds – Important but not the priority in this specific situation. C: Capillary refill – Useful for assessing circulation but not urgent in this context. D: Butterfly rash – A characteristic of lupus, but not a critical concern in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A client with severe head trauma sustained in a car accident is admitted to the intensive care unit. Thirty six-hours later, the client’s urine output suddenly rises above 200mL/hour, leading the nurse to suspect diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory findings support the nurse’s suspicion of diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large volumes of dilute urine. This results in low urine osmolality as the kidneys are unable to concentrate the urine. On the other hand, the serum osmolality increases due to the lack of ADH causing water retention. Therefore, the laboratory findings of low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality support the diagnosis of diabetes insipidus. Explanation for other choices: A: Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels - This does not align with the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus. B: Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels - This is incorrect as low serum osmolality is not characteristic of diabetes insipidus. C: Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal
Question 9 of 9
A patient is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of heart failure. The patient reports that she has had increasing fatigue during the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased cardiac output. Fatigue in heart failure is primarily due to decreased cardiac output, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to tissues, causing fatigue. Dyspnea (A) is shortness of breath, not fatigue. Dry cough (C) is more associated with conditions like pulmonary issues, not fatigue. Orthopnea (D) is difficulty breathing while lying down, not specifically related to fatigue. Hence, decreased cardiac output is the most likely cause of fatigue in this patient.