ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is unable to suction the nares of a newborn immediately following delivery. The attempt to pass a catheter through both nasal cavities has met with no success. What would be the nurse's best action in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Immediate intervention is crucial as the newborn needs clear airways for breathing. 2. Inability to suction the nares can lead to respiratory distress and compromise the infant's oxygenation. 3. Waiting or attempting again may delay necessary actions, risking the baby's health. 4. Physician's assistance may be needed, but recognizing the urgency is the nurse's responsibility to ensure timely care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Attempting to suction again with a bulb syringe may not resolve the issue and delay necessary intervention. B. Waiting for the infant to stop crying is not ideal as it may prolong the risk of respiratory distress. D. While physician assistance may be necessary, immediate recognition of the critical situation is the nurse's primary responsibility.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: damage to the trigeminal nerve. Trigeminal nerve damage can result in the inability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations on the face. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain. Bell's palsy (choice A) affects facial muscles, not sensory perception. Frostbite (choice C) typically causes numbness rather than loss of sensation discrimination. Scleroderma (choice D) is a connective tissue disorder that does not directly affect sensory perception on the face.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 4 of 9
To assess colour vision in a male child, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testing for color vision once between the ages of 4 and 8 is appropriate to assess any potential color vision deficiencies. This age range is crucial as color vision development is mostly completed by the age of 8. Annual checks (A) are not necessary unless there are specific concerns. Asking the child to identify clothing color (B) may not be a reliable indicator of color vision deficiency. No information is provided for option D.
Question 5 of 9
When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse would expect to find that the tympanic membrane is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pearly grey and slightly concave. This is because a healthy tympanic membrane should appear pearly grey in color and slightly concave in shape. The pearly grey color indicates normal transparency and reflection of light, while the slightly concave shape is indicative of a normal eardrum. Choice A is incorrect as a light pink color and slight bulge are not characteristic of a healthy tympanic membrane. Choice C is incorrect because a pulled-in appearance at the base of the cone of light suggests retraction, which is abnormal. Choice D is incorrect as a whitish color with a small fleck of light is not a typical presentation of a healthy tympanic membrane.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 7 of 9
A patient's laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The nurse would examine the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is performing middle ear assessment on a 15-year-old patient who has a history of chronic ear infections. When examining the right tympanic membrane, the nurse sees dense white patches. The tympanic membrane is otherwise unremarkable. It is pearly, with the light reflex at 5 o'clock and visible landmarks. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: know that these are scars caused from frequent ear infections. The presence of dense white patches on the tympanic membrane in a patient with a history of chronic ear infections indicates scarring from previous infections. This is a common finding in individuals who have experienced recurrent middle ear infections. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Fungal infections typically present with different characteristics such as discoloration or debris in the ear canal, not dense white patches on the tympanic membrane. C) Blood in the middle ear would manifest as redness or hemorrhage, not white patches. D) While scarring may affect hearing, the description of the tympanic membrane in this case does not suggest any immediate concern for hearing loss.
Question 9 of 9
A 17-year-old student is a swimmer on her high school's swim team. She has had three bouts of otitis externa so far this season and wants to know how to prevent it. The nurse instructs her to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops help to maintain the pH balance in the ear canal, making it less conducive to bacterial growth. 2. These eardrops also help to dry out excess moisture, reducing the risk of otitis externa. 3. By using these eardrops after every swim, the student can prevent the recurrence of otitis externa. Summary of other choices: A: Using a cotton-tipped swab can push wax deeper into the ear canal, increasing the risk of infection. C: Irrigating the ears can introduce water into the ear canal, potentially worsening the condition. D: Mineral oil and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on the delicate skin of the ear canal, causing irritation.