ATI RN
Quizlet ATI Pharmacology Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is to administer enteral medications to a patient who cannot swallow and is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which is correct concerning administration of the enteral medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is receiving edrophonium chloride suddenly is complaining of abdominal cramps and the nurse observes the client is experiencing increased perspiration and salivation. The nurse makes sure the availability of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal cramps, increased perspiration, and salivation suggest cholinergic excess, which can occur with edrophonium chloride. Atropine sulfate is the antidote for cholinergic toxicity and should be readily available to counteract these effects. Levodopa, methylphenidate, and carbamazepine are not used to treat cholinergic excess. Therefore, atropine is the correct medication to have on hand.
Question 3 of 5
A 28-year-old woman is admitted with suspected urinary sepsis (temperature 40.2°C, BP 84/50, pulse 128). She had a massive haemorrhage following the birth of her only child when she was aged 24; since then she has had no periods. Her partner says that she has been progressively listless and depressed for at least two years. There is left loin tenderness and she has no pubic or axillary hair. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sepsis (fever, hypotension) with post-partum hemorrhage history, amenorrhea, fatigue, and hair loss suggest Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary necrosis) causing adrenal insufficiency. Oral amoxicillin is inadequate for septic shock. IV hydrocortisone treats acute adrenal crisis, stabilizing BP and stress response, most appropriate here alongside antibiotics. Pelvic exam doesn't address urgency. Gonadotrophins or triiodothyronine target secondary issues, not immediate crisis. Hydrocortisone's rapid action is life-saving, addressing cortisol deficiency in this emergency.
Question 4 of 5
With regard to oral anti-asthmatic agents:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone is intermediate-acting (12-36 hours), not long-acting like dexamethasone, so that's false. Methotrexate benefits some prednisone-dependent asthmatics, not all studies, making that false. Cyclosporin's toxicity (e.g., nephrotoxicity) limits its anti-asthmatic use, a true statement, despite immunosuppressive potential. Nifedipine has minimal effect on exercise-induced bronchoconstriction, unlike inhaled CCBs, so that's false. Macrolides show some benefit in asthma. Cyclosporin's limitation reflects its risk-benefit profile, restricting its practical use.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is providing medication education to a client with hypertension. The nurse teaches the client that the physician ordered a diuretic to decrease the amount of fluid in the client's body. Which statement best describes the nurse's instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Explaining a diuretic's role in reducing fluid for hypertension is appropriate education, informing the client about its purpose in a clear, relevant way. Mechanism (e.g., sodium excretion) wasn't detailed-purpose was. Prototype drugs weren't specified, and consequences of non-use weren't covered. Appropriate education fits, enhancing adherence by linking the drug to the condition, a practical teaching goal.