ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man. Which of the following age-related hearing changes should the nurse keep in mind? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related hearing loss begins in the mid-40s. This is because presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss, typically starts around the mid-40s due to natural aging processes affecting the inner ear. Choice B is incorrect as the progression of hearing loss can vary, being gradual for some individuals but not necessarily slow for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as high-frequency tone loss, not low-frequency, is commonly associated with aging. Choice D is incorrect as difficulty hearing consonants is more related to specific types of hearing loss, not solely age-related changes.
Question 2 of 9
A woman is at the clinic for a checkup and says,"My eyes have gotten puffy, and my eyebrows and hair have become coarse and dry." The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: myxedema. This is a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, specifically myxedema, characterized by puffy eyes, coarse hair, and dry skin. The thyroid hormone deficiency leads to decreased metabolic activity, causing these symptoms. Cachexia (A) is severe muscle wasting seen in conditions like cancer. Cretinism (B) is congenital hypothyroidism leading to mental retardation. Scleroderma (D) is a connective tissue disorder causing skin thickening, not typically associated with these symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the nurse notes that the light is reflected at the 2 o'clock position in each eye. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: document this as an asymmetrical light reflex. This finding indicates an asymmetry in the corneal light reflex, suggesting a possible deviation in eye alignment or muscle weakness. It is essential to document this observation for further evaluation and monitoring. Choice A is incorrect as asymmetry in the light reflex is not a normal finding. Referring for further evaluation (Choice B) would be appropriate if the asymmetry persists or is associated with other concerning symptoms. Performing the confrontation test (Choice D) is not necessary for this specific assessment and finding.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with excruciating pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek, that occurs once or twice each day and lasts about 30 minutes to 2 hours. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain on one side of the head, often around the eye, forehead, and cheek. They occur once or twice each day and last for a relatively short duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours. This pattern of symptoms aligns with the typical presentation of cluster headaches. Incorrect Choices: A: Hypertension is unlikely to present with such specific unilateral head pain patterns and timing. C: Tension headaches typically present with more diffuse, mild to moderate pain and are not typically associated with eye, forehead, or cheek pain. D: Migraine headaches usually last longer than 2 hours and are commonly associated with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound.
Question 5 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 6 of 9
Jaundice is manifested by a yellow skin colour, indicating rising levels of bilirubin in the blood. Which of the following findings is indicative of true jaundice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Jaundice is characterized by a yellow skin color due to elevated bilirubin levels. Step 2: Yellow color extending up to the iris indicates systemic jaundice, involving the whole body. Step 3: Yellow patches throughout the sclera (Choice A) may not indicate systemic jaundice. Step 4: Skin appearing yellow under low light (Choice C) may not be specific to jaundice. Step 5: Yellow deposits on palms and soles (Choice D) are not typical signs of jaundice. Therefore, Choice B is correct as it reflects systemic jaundice, while the other choices do not fully align with the manifestation of true jaundice.
Question 7 of 9
Intraocular pressure is determined by the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because intraocular pressure is primarily determined by the amount of aqueous humor produced and the resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber. When there is an imbalance in the production and outflow of aqueous humor, it can lead to an increase in intraocular pressure, which can result in conditions like glaucoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly influence intraocular pressure. The thickness or bulging of the lens (A) is related to accommodation for near vision, the posterior chamber accommodating fluid (B) is not a primary factor in determining intraocular pressure, and the contraction of the ciliary body (C) affects the shape of the lens for focusing rather than intraocular pressure regulation.
Question 8 of 9
The tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth is the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: frenulum. The frenulum is a small fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. It helps to limit the movement of the tongue, preventing excessive movement that could lead to injury. The uvula (A) is a soft tissue dangling at the back of the throat, the palate (B) is the roof of the mouth, and papillae (C) are small raised structures on the tongue's surface. These structures are not involved in connecting the tongue to the floor of the mouth.
Question 9 of 9
The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin is called the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: auricle. The auricle is the visible, outer portion of the ear made up of movable cartilage and skin. It serves to collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. The other choices are incorrect because the concha (B) is the concave cavity leading to the ear canal, the outer meatus (C) is the ear canal itself, and the mastoid process (D) is a bony protrusion behind the ear that has no role in sound collection.