ATI RN
Psychotropic Medications 101 Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is testing the function of CN XI. Which statement best describes the response the nurse should expect if this nerve is intact? The patient:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because CN XI, the spinal accessory nerve, controls the movement of the head and shoulders against resistance. Testing this nerve involves asking the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance and turn the head against resistance. If the nerve is intact, the patient should be able to perform these movements with equal strength on both sides. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not pertain to the function of CN XI. A relates to hearing and CN VIII, B relates to tongue movement and CN XII, and C relates to eye movement and CN III, IV, and VI.
Question 2 of 5
During the assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices that his hands show tremors when he reaches for something and his head is always nodding. No associated rigidity is observed with movement. Which of these statements is most accurate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. These findings are normal, resulting from aging. Tremors and nodding of the head without associated rigidity are common in older adults due to changes in the nervous system and musculoskeletal system. This is known as senile tremors or essential tremors, which are benign and not indicative of a specific disease process. Hyperthyroidism (B) typically presents with other symptoms such as weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations. Parkinson's disease (C) is characterized by resting tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Evaluating for a cerebellar lesion (D) would involve different symptoms like ataxia and dysmetria. Thus, the most accurate statement is that these findings are normal in aging.
Question 3 of 5
In a person with an upper motor neuron lesion such as a cerebrovascular accident, which of these physical assessment findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperreflexia. In upper motor neuron lesions like cerebrovascular accidents, there is disruption of inhibitory signals leading to increased reflex activity. This results in hyperreflexia, where reflexes are exaggerated. This occurs due to lack of inhibition from the brain on the spinal reflex arc. The other choices are incorrect because fasciculations (B) are seen in lower motor neuron lesions, loss of muscle tone and flaccidity (C) are characteristics of lower motor neuron lesions, and atrophy and wasting of muscles (D) occur due to disuse or denervation in lower motor neuron lesions, not in upper motor neuron lesions.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing the neurologic status of a patient who has a late-stage brain tumor. With the reflex hammer, the nurse draws a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and inward, across the ball of the foot. In response, the patient's toes fan out, and the big toe shows dorsiflexion. The nurse interprets this result as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positive Babinski sign, which is abnormal for adults. When the patient's toes fan out and the big toe dorsiflexes in response to the stroke with the reflex hammer on the sole of the foot, it indicates a positive Babinski sign. This abnormal response suggests upper motor neuron dysfunction, possibly due to the brain tumor affecting the corticospinal tract. In adults, a positive Babinski sign is indicative of pathology and not a normal finding. Summary: A: Incorrect - Negative Babinski sign is normal for adults, not applicable in this case. C: Incorrect - Clonus is characterized by rhythmic muscle contractions and is not demonstrated in the scenario described. D: Incorrect - Achilles reflex involves tapping the Achilles tendon to assess the integrity of the S1 nerve root, not relevant to the response observed in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has dementia. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer disease and multiple infarctions. Which diagnostic procedure should a nurse expect to prepare the patient for first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Computed tomography (CT) scan. In this scenario, a CT scan would be most appropriate as it can quickly identify signs of multiple infarctions, such as ischemic strokes, which can present similarly to dementia. A CT scan provides detailed images of the brain's structure, allowing for visualization of infarcts and helping differentiate between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarctions. Reasons why other choices are incorrect: B: Positron emission tomography (PET) scan - PET scans are used to detect metabolic changes in the brain, which may not be as helpful in distinguishing between Alzheimer's disease and multiple infarctions. C: Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) - fMRI measures brain activity and may not be as effective in identifying structural abnormalities associated with infarctions. D: Single-photon–emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan - SPECT scans are useful for evaluating blood flow in the brain but may not provide