The nurse is teaching the client about taking an ACE inhibitor. A typical side effect of an ACE inhibitor explained to the client is what?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a dry, persistent cough due to their effect on bradykinin levels. This side effect is important to educate the client about. Bradycardia (B) is not a typical side effect of ACE inhibitors. Hypokalemia (C) is a possible side effect due to increased potassium excretion but is less common than cough. Weight gain (D) is not associated with ACE inhibitors but may occur with other medications like corticosteroids. It's crucial to focus on the most common and relevant side effect when teaching clients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heparin. Aspirin and Heparin can interact and increase the risk of bleeding due to their combined antiplatelet effects. This interaction can lead to serious complications in the client. Cimetidine (A) is not typically known to interact significantly with aspirin. Prednisone (B) is a corticosteroid and does not have a significant interaction with aspirin in terms of drug-drug reactions. Amoxicillin (D) is an antibiotic and is not known to interact significantly with aspirin in a drug-drug reaction scenario. In conclusion, the correct choice (C) stands out due to its potential for a significant adverse outcome when combined with aspirin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To reduce total and LDL cholesterol. Statin medications are primarily used to lower cholesterol levels, specifically total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol, to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. This is achieved by inhibiting an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis. Incorrect answers: A: Thinning blood is the function of anticoagulants, not statins. C: Statins do not break up plaques in the arteries; they prevent further plaque buildup. D: Statins do not destabilize cholesterol plaques; they primarily focus on lowering cholesterol levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The sino-atrial node. The SA node is the natural pacemaker of the heart, responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that regulate the heartbeat. A resting heart rate of 80 with a regular rhythm indicates normal sinus rhythm, which is typically driven by the SA node. The SA node is located in the right atrium and generates electrical impulses that spread through the atria, causing them to contract. Choice B (The atrio-ventricular node) is incorrect because the AV node serves to delay the electrical impulse to allow the atria to contract before the ventricles. Choice C (The Purkinje fibers) is incorrect as they are responsible for rapid conduction of the electrical impulse to the ventricles. Choice D (The bundle of HIS) is incorrect as it is part of the electrical conduction system that transmits the impulse from the AV node to the bundle branches.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Premature atrial contractions. This is because the client's heart rate is normal (70) and the P wave is coming early and malformed, indicating an early atrial depolarization. This is characteristic of premature atrial contractions, where an ectopic focus in the atria causes an early impulse. The other choices are incorrect because in a normal sinus rhythm (A), the P wave would be normal and not early or malformed. Frequent PVCs (C) would show wide and bizarre QRS complexes, not a malformed P wave. A ventricular escape rhythm (D) would have a slower heart rate and a different pattern of electrical activity.