ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Using the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles is safe because it ensures even heating without creating hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. 2. This method helps to preserve the nutrients in the breast milk or formula. 3. It is important to warm the bottle to body temperature to mimic the natural feel of breast milk for the baby's comfort. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Feeding the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours can increase the risk of bacterial contamination and foodborne illness. C: Mixing two parts water and one part concentrate for formula concentrate is incorrect as it may dilute the formula, leading to inadequate nutrition for the baby. D: Adding new formula to partially used bottles can alter the balance of nutrients and increase the risk of contamination, affecting the baby's health.
Question 2 of 9
While taking a detailed history, what should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Functional status. Including functional status in the history is essential as it provides information about the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. This information is crucial for assessing the client's overall health and well-being. Functional status helps the nurse understand the impact of health issues on the client's daily life and helps in planning appropriate care interventions. B: Data focusing on the client complaint is too narrow and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status. C: A focused assessment of the client complaint may overlook other important aspects of the client's health that could impact their overall well-being. D: Family history for the past three generations is not typically included in a detailed history-taking process and may not be directly relevant to the client's current health status.
Question 3 of 9
The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data together form the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: database. The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data collectively form the database in healthcare. This term refers to a comprehensive collection of all pertinent information about a patient that is used for analysis, diagnosis, and treatment planning. The other choices are incorrect because B: admitting data specifically refers to information gathered at the time of admission, C: financial statement pertains to financial information, and D: discharge summary summarizes the patient's care and treatment at the time of discharge, not the entire patient record.
Question 4 of 9
A woman brings her husband to the clinic for an examination. She is particularly worried because after a recent fall, he seems to have lost a great deal of his memory of recent events. Which of the following statements reflects the nurse's best course of action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because memory loss after a fall can be indicative of a more serious issue like a head injury or neurological problem. A complete mental health examination by the nurse can help assess the extent of memory loss, identify potential causes, and determine appropriate interventions. Referring to a psychometrician (choice B) may not address the immediate health concern. Integrating the mental health examination into history taking and physical examination (choice C) is important but may not be as thorough as a complete mental health examination by a professional. Reassuring the wife that memory loss is normal (choice D) may lead to overlooking a potentially serious health issue.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with hypertension about dietary modifications. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Limiting alcohol intake reduces blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake also helps manage hypertension. Alcohol can increase blood pressure, while sodium can lead to fluid retention. The patient's statement shows understanding of the importance of both factors in managing hypertension. Other Choices: A: Increasing sodium intake worsens fluid retention and hypertension. C: Processed foods are often high in sodium and unhealthy fats, worsening hypertension. D: Reducing exercise can lead to weight gain and increased blood pressure, contrary to managing hypertension.
Question 6 of 9
What is the first priority for a client with suspected sepsis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. In sepsis, early fluid resuscitation is crucial to prevent hypotension and organ dysfunction. IV fluids help restore perfusion and stabilize the client. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is important but comes after fluid resuscitation. Performing a blood culture (choice C) is essential but not the first priority. Performing an abdominal assessment (choice D) is not directly related to managing sepsis and should not be the initial priority.
Question 7 of 9
During an interview, the nurse notices that the patient is avoiding eye contact. What would be the best action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking open-ended questions helps the patient express their feelings without feeling pressured. This approach allows the patient to share at their own pace and comfort level. Choice A may make the patient feel uncomfortable or pressured. Choice B may not address the underlying issue of the patient's avoidance of eye contact. Choice D is more direct and may not be effective if the patient is not ready to discuss their emotions. Ultimately, using open-ended questions promotes a safe and supportive environment for the patient to open up willingly.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues is "A: Impaired Physical Mobility." This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's limited ability to move due to the disease's impact on coordination and muscle control. Impaired Physical Mobility addresses the specific issue of gait problems commonly seen in Parkinson's patients. Choice B, "Impaired Role Performance," does not directly address the physical limitations caused by the disease. Choice C, "Ineffective Role Performance," focuses more on the client's inability to fulfill societal roles rather than the physical aspect of gait issues. Choice D, "Powerlessness," does not capture the primary concern of impaired movement and mobility in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.