ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. What is the correct order of basic CPR steps?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.
Question 2 of 9
The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.
Question 3 of 9
Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.
Question 4 of 9
Which intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report to the healthcare provider any decrease in urinary output. A decrease in urinary output can be indicative of a blockage or other complication, necessitating immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because pouching the stoma with a margin around it is not directly related to managing complications. Choice B is incorrect as referring the client to an ostomy association may be beneficial for education but is not the immediate action needed for decreased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring for infection, although important, is not the priority when dealing with a potential complication like decreased urinary output.
Question 5 of 9
Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients with chronic alcoholism are most likely to develop a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine) due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. This deficiency can lead to conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's syndrome. While deficiencies in other vitamins can also occur in chronic alcoholism, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with this condition, making it the most likely nutrient deficiency in these patients. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Choice D). Deficiencies in Vitamin C (Choice A), Vitamin D (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice C) can also be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, but they are not as commonly linked to this condition compared to Vitamin B1 deficiency.
Question 6 of 9
A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers, is the best course of action. This ensures that the client's best interests are considered and that proper authorization is obtained. Option A, obtaining a court order, is not necessary in this scenario and could delay the surgery. Option B, signing the consent on behalf of the client, is not appropriate as it may raise ethical and legal concerns. Option C, sending the client to surgery without a signed consent form, is not advisable as it violates the principles of informed consent and places the client at risk.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When collecting a mid-stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis, it is important to collect an adequate amount of urine for accurate testing. A volume of 30 to 60 ml is usually recommended for optimal results, so collecting only 5 to 10 ml would not provide enough urine for testing purposes. It is essential to follow proper collection techniques to ensure accurate and reliable test results.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. What is the correct order of basic CPR steps?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.
Question 9 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.