The nurse is teaching a patient about Follistim AQ, a medication prescribed for ovulation induction. What information should be included?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Follistim AQ is a medication used for ovulation induction. Step 2: The medication contains FSH, a hormone that stimulates follicular development. Step 3: Eggs (oocytes) develop within ovarian follicles during the menstrual cycle. Step 4: Follistim AQ stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles. Step 5: Therefore, Option A is correct as it accurately explains how Follistim AQ works. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: While Follistim is a form of FSH, the key point is its role in stimulating follicular development, not just being a manufactured hormone. C: Rapid weight gain is not a typical effect of ovulation induction with Follistim AQ. D: Side effects like breast tenderness and mood changes may occur, but they are not the primary focus of educating a patient about how the medication works.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is incorrect to assume that if a male doesn't have an X-linked disorder, then his children won't either. This statement overlooks the fact that the male could carry the recessive gene and pass it on to his daughters, who could then become carriers. This demonstrates a lack of understanding of how X-linked recessive disorders are inherited. A: This statement is correct as males cannot be carriers of X-linked recessive disorders. C: This statement is correct as females who are carriers have a 50% chance of passing on the recessive gene to their daughters. D: This statement is correct as sons of carrier females have a 50% chance of inheriting the X-linked recessive disorder.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes. An aneuploidy indicates an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result in genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. A karyotype shows the number, size, and shape of chromosomes, so an abnormal number of chromosomes on the karyogram is the correct interpretation. Summary of Other Choices: B: Translocations involve the movement of genetic material between chromosomes, not an abnormal number of chromosomes. C: Chromosomal breaks would not typically result in an aneuploidy but rather structural abnormalities. D: Duplication of chromosomes to total 46 would not lead to aneuploidy but rather a normal chromosome count.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy. B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility. C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because more frequent ultrasounds are necessary to monitor the progression of the pregnancy in a patient with an incompetent cervix. This allows healthcare providers to assess the cervix's condition and the risk of preterm labor. A: Bed rest is not the primary treatment for an incompetent cervix as it does not address the underlying issue. B: A wait and see approach may lead to missed opportunities for preventive interventions. C: Preparation for cerclage at 32 weeks is too late as cerclage is typically done earlier to provide support to the cervix.