ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys. One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT). Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one pinch of smokeless tobacco (SLT) in the mouth for 30 minutes can indeed deliver a similar amount of nicotine as smoking one cigarette. This is because the nicotine in SLT is absorbed through the oral mucosa directly into the bloodstream, providing a quick effect. This statement is accurate and reflects the pharmacokinetics of SLT use. Option B is incorrect because smoking carries a higher risk of oral cancer compared to SLT use. Option C is incorrect as pain is not always an early sign of oral cancer, and other symptoms such as non-healing sores or lumps may indicate oral cancer. Option D is incorrect as pain can sometimes be an early sign of oral cancer, especially in advanced stages.
Question 2 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 3 of 9
While performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and the light reflex is not visible. The most likely cause is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: acute otitis media. In this case, the presentation of a bright red tympanic membrane and absence of the light reflex are indicative of inflammation and fluid accumulation in the middle ear, which are classic signs of acute otitis media. This condition commonly occurs in young children, especially after a recent upper respiratory infection. Incorrect choices: A: Fungal infection is less likely in this case as the symptoms are more consistent with acute bacterial infection seen in otitis media. C: Rupture of the drum would typically present with sudden relief of pain and discharge from the ear, which is not described in the scenario. D: Blood behind the drum (hemotympanum) is uncommon in children with acute otitis media and would usually be associated with trauma or barotrauma.
Question 4 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.
Question 5 of 9
When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, which of the following would the nurse need to do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When using an otoscope to assess the nasal cavity, it is crucial to avoid touching the nasal septum with the speculum to prevent discomfort or injury to the patient. Touching the nasal septum can cause pain and potential damage. Incorrect Choices: A: Inserting the speculum at least 3 cm into the vestibule is not necessary and may cause discomfort or injury to the patient. C: Displacing the nose to the side being examined is not required and may not provide any additional benefit during the assessment. D: Keeping the speculum tip medial to avoid touching the floor of the nares is not as critical as avoiding contact with the nasal septum, which is more sensitive and can be easily injured.
Question 6 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.
Question 8 of 9
A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis
Question 9 of 9
A patient's laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The nurse would examine the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.