ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys. One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT). Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one pinch of smokeless tobacco (SLT) in the mouth for 30 minutes can indeed deliver a similar amount of nicotine as smoking one cigarette. This is because the nicotine in SLT is absorbed through the oral mucosa directly into the bloodstream, providing a quick effect. This statement is accurate and reflects the pharmacokinetics of SLT use. Option B is incorrect because smoking carries a higher risk of oral cancer compared to SLT use. Option C is incorrect as pain is not always an early sign of oral cancer, and other symptoms such as non-healing sores or lumps may indicate oral cancer. Option D is incorrect as pain can sometimes be an early sign of oral cancer, especially in advanced stages.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 3 of 9
While performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and the light reflex is not visible. The most likely cause is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: acute otitis media. In this case, the presentation of a bright red tympanic membrane and absence of the light reflex are indicative of inflammation and fluid accumulation in the middle ear, which are classic signs of acute otitis media. This condition commonly occurs in young children, especially after a recent upper respiratory infection. Incorrect choices: A: Fungal infection is less likely in this case as the symptoms are more consistent with acute bacterial infection seen in otitis media. C: Rupture of the drum would typically present with sudden relief of pain and discharge from the ear, which is not described in the scenario. D: Blood behind the drum (hemotympanum) is uncommon in children with acute otitis media and would usually be associated with trauma or barotrauma.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 5 of 9
During a checkup, a 22-year-old woman tells the nurse that she uses an over-the-counter nasal spray for her allergies. She also reports that it does not work as well as it used to. The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because over-the-counter nasal sprays, especially those containing decongestants, can lead to rebound swelling when used for an extended period. Rebound swelling occurs when the nasal passages become more congested after the effects of the medication wear off. This can result in a cycle of dependency on the nasal spray to alleviate symptoms, leading to worsening congestion over time. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this potential risk and suggest alternative treatment options to address her allergies effectively without causing rebound swelling. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A: Incorrect, as not all over-the-counter nasal sprays carry a risk of addiction. B: Incorrect, as switching to another brand may not address the underlying issue of rebound swelling. C: Incorrect, as continuous use of the nasal spray without addressing rebound swelling can exacerbate the problem.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements about the outer layer of the eye is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are indeed stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of touch in the face and controls the muscles involved in chewing. The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, when the outer layer of the eye is touched or stimulated, these nerves are activated to convey the sensation to the brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: The outer layer of the eye is not particularly sensitive to touch compared to other areas like the cornea or conjunctiva. B: The outer layer of the eye is not darkly pigmented; the pigmented layer is actually the uvea inside the eye. D: The visual receptive layer of the eye, known as the retina, is located deeper within the eye, not
Question 7 of 9
When examining children with Down's syndrome (trisomy 21), the nurse looks for the possible presence of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Down's syndrome is associated with characteristic physical features. Step 2: One common physical feature is a protruding tongue due to a small oral cavity. Step 3: This is known as macroglossia and is seen in individuals with Down's syndrome. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse looks for a protruding thin tongue in children with Down's syndrome. Summary: A is incorrect because ear dysplasia is not a common feature. B is incorrect as a long, thin neck is not a typical characteristic. D is incorrect because a narrow and raised nasal bridge is not a key feature of Down's syndrome.
Question 8 of 9
A patient's laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The nurse would examine the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: thyroid gland. Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland. An elevated thyroxine level indicates a potential thyroid gland dysfunction. The nurse would examine the thyroid gland to assess its size, texture, and any signs of abnormalities. Incorrect choices: B: Parotid gland - This gland is responsible for producing saliva, not thyroxine. C: Adrenal gland - Responsible for producing hormones like cortisol and adrenaline, not thyroxine. D: Thyroxine gland - There is no such thing as a "thyroxine gland." Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 16-year-old patient with head injuries from a recent motor vehicle accident. Which of the following statements indicates the most important reason for assessing for any drainage from the canal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Bloody or clear watery drainage can indicate a basal skull fracture. 2. Basal skull fractures can cause cerebrospinal fluid leakage, leading to clear watery drainage. 3. Blood in the ear canal can suggest a temporal bone fracture. 4. Assessing for drainage helps identify potential serious head injuries. Summary: A. Incorrect. Purulent drainage indicates infection, not related to head injuries. C. Incorrect. Increased cerumen is not the priority in assessing head injuries. D. Incorrect. Foreign bodies in the canal are not the primary concern in this scenario.