ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because treatment for HSV2 focuses on relieving symptoms since the virus cannot be cured. Antiviral medications can help manage outbreaks and reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms. Option A is incorrect as HSV2 typically presents as genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips (usually caused by HSV1). Option B is incorrect since antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Option C is incorrect as HSV2 is most contagious during active outbreaks, making it important to practice safe sex to prevent transmission.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has lost most of her vision as a result of macular degeneration. When attempting to meet this patients psychosocial needs, what nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and promoting the patient's coping skills is essential in addressing the psychosocial needs of a patient with macular degeneration. By understanding how the patient is coping with the vision loss, the nurse can tailor interventions to support the patient effectively. This approach acknowledges the patient's emotional responses and helps them navigate the challenges associated with the condition. Choice A is incorrect as solely focusing on other senses may not address the psychological impact of vision loss. Choice C is incorrect as it dismisses the significant lifestyle changes the patient may experience. Choice D is incorrect as promoting hope for recovery may not be realistic in the case of irreversible conditions like macular degeneration.
Question 4 of 9
A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sentinel node biopsy. This procedure involves identifying and removing the sentinel lymph node(s) which is the first lymph node(s) that cancer cells are likely to spread to from the primary tumor. This method helps determine if cancer has spread beyond the primary site without the need for a full axillary lymph node dissection. It is less invasive, has fewer side effects, and provides accurate staging information. Lymphadenectomy (A) refers to the removal of multiple lymph nodes, which is more extensive than necessary in this case. Needle biopsy (B) and open biopsy (C) are not specific to lymph node evaluation and do not provide accurate staging information for breast cancer.
Question 5 of 9
A male patient presents at the free clinic with complaints of impotency. Upon physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hypogonadism. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prolactinoma. Hypogonadism is often associated with decreased testosterone levels, which can be caused by excessive prolactin secretion from a prolactinoma. Prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to decreased production of testosterone. Angioma, glioma, and ACTH-producing adenoma are not typically associated with hypogonadism. Angiomas are benign tumors of blood vessels, gliomas are tumors of the brain or spinal cord, and ACTH-producing adenomas are associated with Cushing's disease, not hypogonadism.
Question 6 of 9
What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the patient is recovering from preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Increased urine output indicates improved kidney function, a key indicator of recovery from preeclampsia. Step 2: Adequate urine output helps regulate blood pressure and reduce swelling. Step 3: Consistent urine output >100 mL/hour signifies the kidneys are functioning properly. Step 4: Therefore, C is the correct answer as it directly reflects recovery progress from preeclampsia. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with kidney function or recovery from preeclampsia.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a hip fracture is having difficulty defecating into a bedpan while lying in bed. Which action by the nurse will assist the patient in having a successful bowel movement?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Option D is correct because raising the head of the bed promotes a more natural position for defecation, allowing gravity to assist. This position helps align the rectum and anal canal, making it easier for the patient to have a bowel movement. Administering laxatives (Option C) may help, but adjusting the bed position is a non-invasive and more immediate intervention. Withholding pain medication (Option B) could lead to unnecessary discomfort for the patient. Administering a barium enema (Option A) is not indicated for addressing difficulty with defecation.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
Question 9 of 9
Several residents of a long-term care facility have developed signs and symptoms of viral conjunctivitis. What is the most appropriate action of the nurse who oversees care in the facility?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Isolate affected residents from residents who have not developed conjunctivitis. This is the most appropriate action to prevent the spread of viral conjunctivitis in a long-term care facility. By isolating affected residents, the nurse can minimize the risk of transmission to other residents. Choice A is incorrect because prophylactic antibiotics are not effective against viral conjunctivitis. Choice B is also incorrect as normal saline does not treat viral conjunctivitis but may provide comfort. Choice C is unnecessary as viral conjunctivitis is typically diagnosed clinically and does not require culture testing.