ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about theChooseMyPlateprogram. Which guidelines will thenurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, balancing calories. This is because the ChooseMyPlate program emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balance between the calories consumed and calories expended for overall health and weight management. By balancing calories, individuals can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs without overeating or consuming excess calories. A: Balancing sodium and potassium is important for managing blood pressure, but this is not a specific guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. B: Decreasing water consumption is not a guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. Adequate hydration is essential for overall health. C: Increasing portion size is not recommended in the ChooseMyPlate program. It emphasizes portion control and eating appropriate serving sizes of different food groups.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Esophageal cancer. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for developing esophageal cancer. Ethanol, a component of alcohol, can damage the cells lining the esophagus and lead to the development of cancer over time. Incorrect choices: A: Malignant melanoma - Alcohol consumption is not directly linked to the development of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer. B: Brain cancer - There is no strong evidence linking alcohol consumption to an increased risk of brain cancer. C: Breast cancer - While excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for breast cancer, the primary association is with esophageal cancer in this case. E: Liver cancer - While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and increase the risk of liver cancer, the question specifies the types of cancer the patient is at risk for due to alcohol consumption, not the general risks associated with alcohol abuse.
Question 3 of 9
Following a motorcycle accident, a 17-year-old man is brought to the ED. What physical assessment findings related to the ear should be reported by the nurse immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Clear, watery fluid draining from the ear post-accident indicates a possible cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention to prevent complications such as meningitis. 2. CSF leak can result from a basilar skull fracture, common in head injuries like motorcycle accidents. 3. Prompt reporting of this finding by the nurse is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of potential life-threatening complications. Summary: A: Visualizing the malleus during otoscopic examination is normal and not an immediate concern in this scenario. B: A pearly gray tympanic membrane is a normal finding and does not indicate a serious issue post-accident. C: Tenderness in the mastoid area may suggest injury but is not as urgent as clear, watery fluid drainage indicative of a CSF leak.
Question 4 of 9
Which piece of data will the nurse use for “B” when using SBAR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse will use the history of angina for "B" when using SBAR because it provides relevant background information about the patient's cardiac condition. This helps the nurse understand the context of the current situation and make appropriate decisions. Pulse rate of 108 (choice B) is a specific vital sign and not an appropriate choice for "B" in SBAR. Having chest pain (choice A) is important but does not provide the necessary background information like the history of angina does. Oxygen being needed (choice D) is a current intervention and not relevant for "B" in SBAR, which focuses on providing background information.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse in an extended care facility is planning the daily activities of a patient with postpolio syndrome. The nurse recognizes the patient will best benefit from physical therapy when it is scheduled at what time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In the morning. This is because scheduling physical therapy in the morning allows the patient to benefit from increased energy levels and improved muscle strength and function after a night of rest. Morning sessions can also help set a positive tone for the rest of the day. Choice A: Immediately after meals can lead to discomfort and potential complications like indigestion or reflux. Choice C: Before bedtime may be too late in the day when fatigue levels are higher and may disrupt sleep patterns. Choice D: In the early evening may be less effective as fatigue accumulates throughout the day, and the patient may not have the same level of energy and focus as in the morning.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has just been told that her illness is terminal. The patient tearfully states, I cant believe I am going to die. Why me? What is your best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This must be very difficult for you." This response acknowledges the patient's emotional state and shows empathy without making assumptions or dismissing their feelings. It validates the patient's emotions and opens up the opportunity for further discussion or support. Rationale: 1. A: "I know how you are feeling" assumes the tutor knows the exact emotions of the patient, which can come off as insincere or dismissive. 2. B: "You have lived a long life" does not address the patient's emotional distress or provide comfort in the face of a terminal illness. 3. D: "Life can be so unfair" does not directly address the patient's feelings and may come off as generic or cliché.
Question 7 of 9
A 56-year-old patient has come to the clinic for his routine eye examination and is told he needs bifocals. The patient asks the nurse what change in his eyes has caused his need for bifocals. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately explains the physiological change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. As individuals age, there is a gradual thickening of the lens of the eye, which affects the eye's ability to accommodate for near vision. This thickening makes it harder for the eye to focus on close objects, necessitating the use of bifocals to correct this near vision issue. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a scientifically accurate explanation for the need for bifocals in older individuals. Option A is dismissive and does not address the specific change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. Option B implies aging as a general concept without specifying the relevant change in the eye. Option D incorrectly states that the eye gets shorter as we age, which is not the reason for needing bifocals.
Question 8 of 9
An older adult with a recent history of mixed hearing loss has been diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What should this patient be taught about this diagnosis? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cholesteatomas are often the result of chronic otitis media. Chronic otitis media can lead to the formation of cholesteatomas, which are noncancerous but can cause complications if left untreated. Cholesteatomas do not resolve spontaneously (A), are not the result of metastasis (B), do not typically cause intractable neuropathic pain (D), and usually require surgical removal to prevent complications (E). Therefore, educating the patient about the association between chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma is essential for understanding the diagnosis and potential treatment options.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the lesions clean and dry. This intervention helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Cleaning the lesions reduces the risk of secondary infections and discomfort. Keeping the area dry can also help alleviate pain and discomfort associated with moisture. Covering with a topical antibiotic (A) may not address pain directly and could potentially irritate the lesions. Applying a topical NSAID (C) may provide some pain relief but does not address the primary need to keep the lesions clean and dry. Remaining on bed rest (D) is not necessary for managing acute pain related to genital lesions.