ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about theChooseMyPlateprogram. Which guidelines will thenurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, balancing calories. This is because the ChooseMyPlate program emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balance between the calories consumed and calories expended for overall health and weight management. By balancing calories, individuals can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs without overeating or consuming excess calories. A: Balancing sodium and potassium is important for managing blood pressure, but this is not a specific guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. B: Decreasing water consumption is not a guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. Adequate hydration is essential for overall health. C: Increasing portion size is not recommended in the ChooseMyPlate program. It emphasizes portion control and eating appropriate serving sizes of different food groups.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the physicians notes from the patient who has just left the clinic. The nurse learns that the physician suspects a malignant breast tumor. On palpation, the mass most likely had what characteristic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mobility. A malignant breast tumor typically lacks mobility due to its fixed attachment to surrounding tissues. This characteristic is concerning for malignancy as it suggests invasive growth. Incorrect answers: A: Nontenderness - Tenderness does not reliably indicate malignancy or benignancy. B: A size of 5 mm - Tumor size alone does not determine malignancy. C: Softness and a regular shape - Malignant tumors are often firm and irregular in shape.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are consistent with contact dermatitis. What aspect of care should the nurse prioritize when working with this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the offending agent, if possible. This is prioritized in contact dermatitis to prevent further exposure and recurrence. By identifying the specific irritant or allergen, the nurse can guide the patient in avoiding it, leading to effective management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while promoting adequate perfusion, safe use of topical antihistamines, and teaching the use of an EpiPen may be relevant in certain situations, they do not directly address the root cause of contact dermatitis, which is exposure to the offending agent.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is creating a care plan for a patient suffering from allergic rhinitis. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improved coping with lifestyle modifications. This outcome is appropriate for a patient with allergic rhinitis as it focuses on helping the patient manage the condition through lifestyle changes, such as avoiding allergens and using medications as prescribed. By improving coping skills, the patient can better manage symptoms and reduce the impact of allergic rhinitis on daily life. Rationale: 1. A: Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics is not relevant for allergic rhinitis, which is not typically treated with antibiotics. 2. B: Safe injection of corticosteroids is not a primary treatment for allergic rhinitis and may not be necessary for all patients. 3. C: Improved skin integrity is not a priority outcome for allergic rhinitis, as it primarily affects the respiratory system, not the skin. Summary: Improving coping with lifestyle modifications is the most relevant outcome for a patient with allergic rhinitis, as it addresses the management of symptoms and overall quality of
Question 7 of 9
A patients decline in respiratory and renal function has been attributed to Goodpasture syndrome, which is a type II hypersensitivity reaction. What pathologic process underlies the patients health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in Goodpasture syndrome, the patient's immune system mistakenly targets normal constituents of the body, specifically the basement membrane of the kidneys and lungs. This autoimmune response leads to inflammation and damage in these organs, resulting in respiratory and renal dysfunction. Choice A is incorrect as immune complexes are not the primary mechanism in Goodpasture syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to T cell-mediated immune responses, which are not the main drivers in this condition. Choice D is incorrect as histamine release and cell lysis are not the main processes involved in Goodpasture syndrome.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is using the RESPECT mnemonic to establishrapport, the “R” in RESPECT. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Connect on a social level. In the RESPECT mnemonic, "R" stands for "Rapport," which is crucial in building a therapeutic relationship with the patient. Connecting on a social level helps establish trust, empathy, and understanding between the nurse and the patient. This connection can lead to better communication, collaboration, and ultimately improved patient outcomes. Summary: - Choice B: Helping the patient overcome barriers is important but not specifically related to establishing rapport in the RESPECT mnemonic. - Choice C: Suspending judgment is important for effective communication but does not directly address building rapport. - Choice D: Stressing collaboration is valuable but does not specifically focus on connecting on a social level to build rapport.
Question 9 of 9
An older adult with a recent history of mixed hearing loss has been diagnosed with a cholesteatoma. What should this patient be taught about this diagnosis? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cholesteatomas are often the result of chronic otitis media. Chronic otitis media can lead to the formation of cholesteatomas, which are noncancerous but can cause complications if left untreated. Cholesteatomas do not resolve spontaneously (A), are not the result of metastasis (B), do not typically cause intractable neuropathic pain (D), and usually require surgical removal to prevent complications (E). Therefore, educating the patient about the association between chronic otitis media and cholesteatoma is essential for understanding the diagnosis and potential treatment options.