ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.
Question 2 of 5
Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in a client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland and is not directly related to closed head injury or increased intracranial pressure. Hashimoto's disease (choice C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland, not commonly associated with head injuries. Gynecomastia (choice D) is the development of breast tissue in males and is not an endocrine disorder typically linked to closed head injuries.
Question 3 of 5
Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a key outcome in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with fluid volume excess may not necessarily void a minimum of 30 mL per hour, have elastic skin turgor, or have a specific serum creatinine level. The absence of adventitious breath sounds is a more direct indicator of managing fluid volume excess.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse writes a problem of "potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation" for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.
Question 5 of 5
In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before sputum collection, it is crucial to use a clean container to prevent specimen contamination. This step is essential to ensure accurate test results and to avoid introducing external particles or bacteria into the sample. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes soiled is not a standard practice before collection. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine after collection can introduce unnecessary substances into the specimen. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum needed should be determined by the healthcare provider, not the client.