ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect as in Type 1 diabetes the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is incorrect as while excessive sugar intake can contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes, it is not the primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as the pituitary gland's function is unrelated to the development of Type 2 diabetes.
Question 2 of 5
Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.
Question 3 of 5
Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse writes a problem of "potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation" for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
Question 5 of 5
In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.