ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a decrease in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can result in dizziness, fainting, or even shock. Bradycardia (choice B) is a common side effect but usually not as critical as hypotension. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is a potential side effect of some beta blockers but is less common and typically not as urgent as hypotension. Tachycardia (choice D) is the opposite of what beta blockers typically cause, making it an unlikely side effect to monitor for in this case.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation on dabigatran (Pradaxa). What is the most important instruction to give to the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Dabigatran is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. 2. Consistent dosing is crucial to maintain therapeutic levels. 3. Missing doses increases the risk of clot formation. 4. Taking it at the same time daily helps to ensure effectiveness. Summary: A: Taking with food is not essential for dabigatran. C: Alcohol does not directly interact with dabigatran. D: Monitoring for bleeding is important, but consistent dosing is the priority for efficacy.
Question 3 of 5
The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. Nitrate medications vasodilate blood vessels, including those in the brain, which can lead to headaches. It is the most common side effect and often subsides with continued use. Flushing is also a common side effect but not as prevalent as headaches. Dizziness and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates and are usually seen in a smaller percentage of patients compared to headaches. Monitoring for headaches is crucial to ensure patient comfort and compliance with the medication regimen.
Question 4 of 5
The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase the dose of warfarin. INR of 1.2 indicates subtherapeutic levels. The nurse's priority is to adjust the dose to achieve a therapeutic range (usually 2-3). Increasing the dose is essential to prevent clot formation. Administering vitamin K (B) is not indicated for a low INR. Monitoring for bleeding (C) is important, but not the priority when the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider (D) may be necessary if the INR is too high, not low.
Question 5 of 5
The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a common side effect of furosemide. Administering a potassium supplement is essential to prevent complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect because holding furosemide can worsen the client's condition. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose can further lower potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect as Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity, not hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement addresses the underlying issue.