The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age younger than 50 years. Colorectal cancer is more commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 50, so being younger than 50 is not typically considered a significant risk factor. Choice B, history of colorectal polyps, is a known risk factor as polyps can develop into cancer over time. Choice C, family history of colorectal cancer, is a well-established risk factor due to genetic predisposition. Choice D, chronic inflammatory bowel disease, such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis, increases the risk of developing colorectal cancer. Therefore, the incorrect choice is A as age younger than 50 years is not a common risk factor for colorectal cancer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Back pain.' Back pain is a common symptom of spinal cord compression in cancer patients. This condition can cause localized or radiating back pain due to the compression of the spinal cord or nerves. While symptoms such as decreased deep tendon reflexes, severe headache, and loss of bladder control can occur in other conditions, back pain is specifically associated with spinal cord compression in cancer patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range; however, since cisplatin is nephrotoxic, it requires close monitoring. Elevated BUN levels can indicate impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to cisplatin therapy or require immediate intervention.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A red, warm, swollen calf may indicate a deep vein thrombosis, which is a medical emergency. This finding requires immediate notification of the primary health care provider to prevent potential complications such as pulmonary embolism. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of life-threatening conditions and should be monitored but do not require immediate notification like a suspected deep vein thrombosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Brachytherapy is an internal radiation therapy.' Brachytherapy involves the placement of radioactive sources inside or next to the area requiring treatment. This differs from teletherapy, which is external radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect as pregnant individuals should avoid exposure to radiation. Choice B is incorrect because teletherapy does not make the patient radioactive; the radiation source is external. Choice D is incorrect as feces is not a significant source of radiation during teletherapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in pre-planning for alopecia is the best method to help them manage the psychosocial impact of the issue. By helping clients anticipate and prepare for the challenges associated with alopecia, they can cope better with the psychological impact. Reassuring the client that alopecia is temporary (choice B) may provide false hope as some types of alopecia are permanent. Teaching ways to protect the scalp (choice C) is important but not the most effective method for managing the psychosocial impact. Telling the client that there are worse side effects (choice D) is dismissive of the client's feelings and not helpful in addressing the psychosocial impact of alopecia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a patient develops erythema following radiation therapy, it is essential to avoid further irritation and potential infection. Using soap on the affected area can exacerbate the condition. Applying ice (choice A) may provide temporary relief for discomfort but does not address the underlying issue. Keeping the area cleanly shaven (choice B) is not necessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation. Applying petroleum jelly (choice C) can trap heat and worsen the erythema, so it is not recommended.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, putting the client at high risk for infection. Neutrophils are crucial in fighting off infections; a low count increases susceptibility to infections. Platelet count, white blood cell count, and hemoglobin levels are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Gastroduodenostomy. Billroth I procedure involves the removal of a part of the stomach (usually the distal portion) and anastomosis of the remaining stomach to the duodenum. This procedure is known as Gastroduodenostomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they refer to different surgical procedures involving connections with the jejunum, ileum, and creating an opening in the stomach, respectively, not the specific procedure described as Billroth I.