The nurse is teaching a class about breast self-examinations. A client asks if the she should have an annual mammogram. According to the American Cancer Society, how should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: According to the American Cancer Society, they recommend that all women aged 40 to 44 should have the choice to start annual mammograms if they wish to do so. For women aged 45 to 54, it is recommended to have an annual mammogram. For women aged 55 and older, they can switch to mammograms every two years or continue with annual screenings. Mammograms are an important screening tool for detecting breast cancer early, especially in women over the age of 40 when the risk of developing breast cancer increases.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The assessment finding that strongly suggests that the client's lump is cancerous is a non-mobile mass with irregular edges delineated. Generally, cancerous breast lumps tend to have irregular shapes/edges and lack mobility. This finding is concerning for malignancy because it indicates that the lump is fixed in place and possibly invading nearby tissues, which are characteristics often associated with cancerous tumors. It's essential for the client to undergo further diagnostic tests, such as a biopsy, to confirm the presence of cancer and establish a proper treatment plan.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is the finding that most strongly suggests breast cancer. This presentation is concerning for an invasive carcinoma that has invaded into the surrounding tissues, leading to the dimpling of the skin. Breast cancer typically presents as a painless, hard, irregularly shaped, non-mobile mass. Dimpling of the skin overlying the mass is a sign of advanced disease and is often associated with a poor prognosis. Therefore, this finding should raise suspicion for breast cancer and prompt further evaluation and workup.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: One of the major risk factors for ovarian cancer is nulliparity, which means never having been pregnant. This is because pregnancy and childbirth have a protective effect against ovarian cancer. Women who have never been pregnant are at a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to women who have had children. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the risk increasing as women get older. Therefore, the 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant has the highest risk of ovarian cancer among the given clients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The best treatment for cancer at the present time is complete surgical removal before metastasis occurs. Surgery is often the most effective method to remove the primary tumor and eliminate cancer cells in the affected area. While chemotherapy and radiation therapy are important in treating cancer, surgical removal of the tumor provides the best chance for complete eradication of cancer cells, especially if it is done before the cancer has spread to other parts of the body.