ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching a caregivers' support group for caretakers of older adult patients. The focus is medication compliance. The nurse determines that learning has occurred when the caregivers make which response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A med management box organizes doses, reducing forgotten pills in older adults with memory issues, boosting compliance. Crushing meds risks altering pharmacokinetics (e.g., enteric-coated drugs). Doctor review is proactive but not direct compliance. More education assumes understanding drives adherence, often untrue. The box addresses forgetfulness, a practical fix.
Question 2 of 5
Thiopental is used as an anesthetic agent during surgery to repair a small-bowel obstruction in a 78-year-old man. Approximately 1 day after his surgery, toxicology studies still reveal some thiopental present in the bloodstream. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiopental, a barbiturate, persists 24 hours post-surgery. Physiologic metabolism is correct-its lipophilicity causes redistribution to fat, with slow hepatic metabolism, normal in the elderly. Hepatitis or insufficiency lacks evidence. Renal failure doesn't primarily clear it. Trauma (E) is unrelated. This reflects thiopental's pharmacokinetics, not pathology.
Question 3 of 5
A 44-year-old man is found dead in his home by the police. Reports indicate that the man was heating his one-room apartment with a kerosene space heater. He was found because other people in the apartment complex that he lives at developed headache, lethargy, and confusion. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A 19-year-old man who is a known heroin addict is brought to the emergency department because of an apparent overdose. The reason why addicts enjoy heroin is because of its conversion to which of the following substances?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
A 21-year-old male has recently begun pimozide therapy for Tourette disorder. His parents bring him to the emergency department. They describe that he has been having 'different-appearing tics' than before, such as prolonged contraction of the facial muscles. While being examined, he experiences opisthotonos (type of extrapyramidal spasm of the body in which the head and heels are bent backward and the body is bowed forward). Which of the following drugs would be beneficial in reducing these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pimozide, a D2 antagonist for Tourette's, can cause acute dystonia (prolonged muscle contractions, opisthotonos) as an extrapyramidal symptom due to dopamine blockade. Benztropine, an anticholinergic, restores dopamine-acetylcholine balance in the basal ganglia, rapidly relieving dystonia by reducing cholinergic overactivity. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, might theoretically help but isn't standard for acute EPS. Lithium treats bipolar disorder, not EPS. Prochlorperazine, an antipsychotic, worsens dystonia. Risperidone adds D2 blockade. Benztropine's proven efficacy in acute dystonia, per clinical guidelines, makes it the best intervention here.