The nurse is taking a health history from a 29-year-old pregnant patient at the first prenatal visit. The patient reports no personal history of diabetes but has a parent who is diabetic. Which action will the nurse plan to take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level. At the first prenatal visit, it is important to assess the patient's risk factors for developing gestational diabetes, especially with a family history of diabetes. A fasting blood glucose level will provide an initial screening to determine if the patient is at risk for gestational diabetes. This test is non-invasive, cost-effective, and provides valuable information early in the pregnancy. Teaching about administering regular insulin (A) is premature without confirming a diagnosis. An oral glucose tolerance test at the twenty-fourth week (C) is typically done later in pregnancy to diagnose gestational diabetes. Providing teaching about fetal problems with gestational diabetes (D) is important but should come after confirming the diagnosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Careful assessment helps in understanding the client's condition and needs. 2. Documenting client status provides evidence of the care provided. 3. It ensures that necessary actions are taken promptly to prevent negligence. 4. Documentation serves as legal protection against false imprisonment accusations. Summary: - Choice B is about data security, not directly related to preventing negligence and false imprisonment. - Choice C focuses on accurate documentation but lacks the emphasis on assessment. - Choice D is vague and does not specifically address the legal aspects of negligence and false imprisonment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Goal setting theory. This theory emphasizes setting specific, challenging goals to improve performance, focusing on long-range planning rather than immediate rewards. Goals provide direction and motivation, leading to increased effort and persistence. Equity theory (A) focuses on fairness in outcomes and inputs. Development (B) refers to personal growth and learning. Extinction (D) is a behaviorist concept related to the disappearance of a previously learned behavior due to lack of reinforcement.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Role conflict. Role conflict occurs when an individual experiences conflicting demands from different roles they hold, causing stress. In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance the roles of caregiver and managing household responsibilities, leading to frustration. A: Role ambiguity refers to uncertainty or lack of clarity about one's responsibilities, which is not evident in the scenario. B: Role overload is when an individual has too many responsibilities to manage effectively, but in this case, the partner is specifically struggling with conflicting roles. D: Sick role is when an individual's illness affects their ability to fulfill their roles, which is not the primary issue in this scenario. In summary, the partner's frustration in balancing caregiving and household responsibilities indicates role conflict as the correct type of role-performance stress being experienced.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: A staff nurse experiencing burnout may isolate themselves, leading to less interaction with staff on other units. This can result in spending less time talking to staff on other units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are common signs of burnout: staff questioning clinical judgment, increased sleep, and increased alcohol consumption.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Generate a pool of qualified applicants. The main purpose of recruitment activities is to attract and identify a diverse pool of qualified candidates for a job vacancy. By generating a pool of qualified applicants, the organization increases the chances of finding the best fit for the position. Option A, assessing motivation, is not the main purpose but can be a part of the recruitment process. Option C, assessing skills, and option D, assessing ability, are more related to the selection process rather than recruitment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it shows the client is willing to involve their partner in the learning process, indicating readiness for education. Involving a partner can enhance support and understanding, leading to better adherence. A: Time preference does not directly relate to readiness to learn about insulin. B: Difficulty reading instructions due to glasses is a practical issue, not an indicator of readiness. C: Expressing doubt or questioning the necessity of learning indicates potential resistance or lack of motivation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Progressive. Progressive penalties involve a gradual increase in severity for repeated violations, promoting learning and corrective action. This approach allows for improvement and prevents immediate termination. Choice A is incorrect as awareness is not a basis for penalties. Choice B focuses on describing behavior rather than the penalty itself. Choice D, confrontation, is not a recommended penalty approach as it can lead to negative outcomes. Therefore, the progressive approach is the most effective in promoting growth and compliance.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of discharge planning is to ensure continuity of care. This involves coordinating the transition of care from the hospital to the next level of care to prevent gaps in treatment and promote a smooth recovery process. Option A focuses solely on readmission rates, which is not the sole purpose of discharge planning. Option B is a broad goal that is encompassed within ensuring continuity of care. Option D, while important, is just one aspect of the overall goal of ensuring continuity of care. Thus, option C is the correct answer as it encompasses all aspects of discharge planning.