ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the orders for a patient and notes a new order for an angiotensin-
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, a type of angiotensin inhibitor, may have a serious interaction with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). This interaction can potentially reduce the effectiveness of the ACE inhibitor in lowering blood pressure and may cause kidney damage in susceptible individuals. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to be aware of this potential drug interaction and to monitor the patient for any signs of adverse effects when these two drug classes are used together.
Question 2 of 5
Which statement is false:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Higher potency (lower dose for effect) can coexist with lower efficacy (max effect), true, as potency reflects affinity, not ceiling effect. Higher receptor affinity increases potency, true, per receptor theory. Lower potency doesn't mandate lower efficacy; a less potent drug can achieve the same max effect with more dose, making this false. Higher potency with equal efficacy is true (e.g., partial agonists). This pharmacodynamic distinction is vital for drug selection, where efficacy often trumps potency.
Question 3 of 5
An adult patient has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome p-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome p-450 system. You should monitor this patient for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Drug B, as an inducer of the cytochrome p-450 system, increases the metabolism of Drug A, leading to lower plasma concentrations and reduced therapeutic effects of Drug A. This interaction is a common concern in polypharmacy, where one drug affects the metabolism of another. Monitoring for decreased efficacy of Drug A is essential to ensure the patient receives adequate treatment. Increased adverse effects of Drug B or decreased effects of Drug B are less likely in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A 59-year-old man with hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disorder, AIDS, seizure disorder, and depression is currently maintained on multiple medications, including propranolol. He does not have his medication list at his current office visit with his primary care physician. His blood pressure is 180/100 mm Hg. The patient states that he is taking all of his medications as scheduled. Which of the following drugs is the most likely explanation of this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's uncontrolled hypertension (180/100 mm Hg) despite propranolol, a β-blocker, suggests a drug interaction. Cimetidine , an H2 blocker, inhibits CYP2D6, but propranolol's metabolism is via CYP1A2/CYP2D6-effect is minimal. Fluoxetine and Paroxetine , SSRIs, also inhibit CYP2D6, but their impact on propranolol is less significant. Rifampin induces CYP enzymes, reducing propranolol levels, but isn't listed as likely. Ritonavir (E), a protease inhibitor for AIDS, potently inhibits CYP3A4 and CYP2D6, increasing propranolol levels, yet here it paradoxically fails to control BP, possibly due to complex polypharmacy or adherence issues. Ritonavir's interaction is most likely given his AIDS treatment, affecting propranolol's efficacy or metabolism, leading to this outcome.
Question 5 of 5
A patient taking which of the following medications should avoid foods high in tyramine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: MAOIs (e.g., phenelzine) block tyramine breakdown, risking hypertensive crisis with foods like cheese, per pharmacology. SSRIs, beta blockers, and benzos lack this interaction-tyramine isn't their concern. MAOIs' dietary restriction is critical, a unique safety point.