ATI RN
Disorders of the Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal calculi. Deep tendon reflex assessment is not directly related to the urinary/renal system. Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort in the urinary tract. The assessment may help identify if the patient is experiencing symptoms related to renal calculi, such as flank pain or hematuria. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically addressed by assessing deep tendon reflexes, unlike renal calculi.
Question 2 of 5
A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymitis. The key features that point towards epididymitis in this case include sudden onset severe scrotal pain, tenderness in the scrotal area, difficulty in distinguishing the epididymis from the testis, and thick, edematous scrotal skin. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis typically caused by a bacterial infection. The pain is often relieved by elevation due to reduced pressure. Varicocele (A) is a painless swelling of the veins in the scrotum. Spermatocele (C) is a benign cyst containing sperm that is usually painless. Testicular torsion (D) presents with sudden, severe testicular pain but does not typically involve difficulty in differentiating between the epididymis and testis or edematous scrotal skin.
Question 3 of 5
The drug of choice for treatment and secondary prophylaxis against * cryptococcal meningitis among AIDS patients is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluconazole. Fluconazole is the drug of choice for treating and preventing *cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients due to its excellent CNS penetration and efficacy. It is preferred over Amphotericin B due to its better safety profile and tolerability. Flucytosine is not used as monotherapy and is often combined with other antifungals. Ketoconazole is not recommended for cryptococcal meningitis due to poor CNS penetration.
Question 4 of 5
"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene * epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onymycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Terbinafine is the correct answer as it inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane. This drug is specifically effective against onychomycosis in diabetic patients due to its fungicidal action and good nail penetration. Griseofulvin (A) targets microtubules, not squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) inhibits ergosterol synthesis via a different mechanism. Amphotericin B (D) disrupts fungal cell membrane by binding to ergosterol, not squalene epoxidase.