ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the care plan with a patient using enteral nutrition (EN). Which interventions by the nurse are appropriate for this strategy? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Checking gastric residuals (A) ensures proper gastric emptying and reduces aspiration risk. Elevating the bed (B) prevents reflux and aspiration. Reporting absent bowel sounds (D) is critical, as EN is contraindicated in ileus. Feeding bags and tubing should be changed every 24 hours, not 3 to 4 days (C).
Question 2 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.
Question 3 of 5
A 24-year-old beautician has a history of chronic fatigue since an attack of infectious mononucleosis when aged 20. Her fatigue has become progressively worse. Her periods are painful, heavy and irregular. Her BP is 116/62 (supine) and 92/52 (standing). Serum Na+ is 132, K+ 5.5, creatinine 60 μmol/L. Which of the following would be most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension (116/62 to 92/52), hyponatremia (Na+ 132), and hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5) post-mononucleosis suggest Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency). Fludrocortisone treats mineralocorticoid deficiency but needs diagnosis first. CBT addresses fatigue psychologically, not endocrine causes. Aciclovir treats viral infections, irrelevant here. Tetracosactide (Synacthen) tests adrenal function, diagnosing Addison's by cortisol response, most appropriate to confirm before lifelong therapy. This diagnostic step ensures accurate management, critical in suspected adrenal failure.
Question 4 of 5
Regarding first pass metabolism:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The extraction ratio (ER = hepatic clearance / liver blood flow) quantifies first-pass metabolism's impact on bioavailability (F = 1 - ER), a true statement. It doesn't directly affect volume of distribution, which is a distribution parameter, so that's false. Oral morphine's bioavailability is ~20-30%, not exactly 15%, but close, though false per key. Phenytoin's extraction ratio is low, not high, due to capacity-limited metabolism. Lidocaine's high first-pass effect prevents oral efficacy, true. The ER formula is foundational in pharmacokinetics, predicting oral drug availability.
Question 5 of 5
The nursing instructor teaches the student nurses about the pharmacological classification of drugs. The instructor evaluates that learning has occurred when the students make which response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pharmacological classification groups drugs by mechanism-anticoagulants influence clotting by inhibiting factors like thrombin, a precise definition. Anti-anginal and antihypertensive describe therapeutic effects, not mechanisms. Calcium channel blockers' action is mechanistic but less broad than clotting's systemic impact. Anticoagulants' specific role in coagulation reflects accurate classification understanding, key for pharmacology learning.