The nurse is reviewing information about a client and notes the following documentation: 'Client is confused.' The nurse recognizes this information is an example of what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: An inference. When the nurse documents that the client is confused, it is an interpretation or conclusion drawn from the observed behavior or symptoms. Inferences are based on subjective and objective data. Subjective data (choice A) is based on what the client states, while a data cue (choice B) is a piece of information that may lead to an inference but is not the actual interpretation. Primary data (choice D) refers to firsthand information obtained directly from the client, which is not the case here. In this scenario, the nurse is making an inference based on the observed confusion, making choice C the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not stop medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping propranolol can lead to rebound hypertension and potentially life-threatening complications. The nurse should emphasize the importance of gradual tapering under medical supervision to avoid adverse effects. A: Having potassium levels checked is not directly related to propranolol use for hypertension management. C: Changes in appetite are not specific to propranolol use and may not be a significant concern compared to abrupt cessation of the medication. D: Resuming usual daily activities is important but not as crucial as the correct instruction to avoid abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Safety of the immediate environment. This is crucial for the client's well-being and can impact their health. The nurse should assess for hazards like loose rugs, clutter, or slippery floors. This ensures a safe living environment for the client. The other choices (A, C, D) are not directly related to the client's immediate safety or well-being. The number of rooms in the house (A) is not as important as ensuring the safety of the environment. The frequency of home visits (C) can be planned later based on the initial assessment. The friendliness of the client and family (D) is important for building rapport but does not address the immediate safety concerns of the client.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. This intervention is appropriate because it addresses the patient's reduced muscle strength following a left-sided stroke and the risk for falling. Assisting the patient into and out of bed regularly helps prevent falls by ensuring safe mobility and reducing the likelihood of accidents. It promotes independence while also providing necessary support. A: Keeping all side rails down at all times may increase the risk of falls as it removes a safety measure that can help prevent falls. B: Encouraging the patient to remain in bed most of the shift can lead to deconditioning and muscle weakness, increasing the risk of falls. C: Placing the patient in a room away from the nurses' station does not directly address the risk for falls and may hinder timely assistance in case of emergencies. In summary, option D is the most appropriate intervention as it addresses the patient's needs, promotes safety, and supports mobility to prevent falls effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Classic full-blown AIDS presents with tumors and opportunistic infections due to severe immune system suppression. Step 2: These manifestations occur when CD4 cell count drops significantly, leading to inability to fight infections. Step 3: Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (Choice A) can be seen in early HIV infection, not necessarily in full-blown AIDS. Step 4: Sudden weight loss, fever, and malaise (Choice B) are non-specific symptoms seen in various conditions, not specific to AIDS. Step 5: Fever, weight loss, night sweats, and diarrhea (Choice D) are common symptoms but lack the specificity of tumors and opportunistic infections seen in classic full-blown AIDS.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. After administering glucagon for hypoglycemia, the body may deplete its glycogen stores from the liver. Offering a complex carbohydrate snack will help restore liver glycogen, preventing secondary hypoglycemia. This is crucial for maintaining blood glucose levels in individuals with type 1 diabetes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because offering a complex carbohydrate snack is primarily aimed at restoring liver glycogen to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes, not to address nausea/vomiting, stimulate appetite, or decrease glycogen levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. A serum calcium level of 7.2mg/dl indicates hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is a clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular excitability from low calcium levels. Hegar's sign (B) is associated with pregnancy, Homan's sign (C) is a clinical test for deep vein thrombosis, and Goodell's sign (D) is a softening of the cervix during pregnancy. These signs are not relevant to a client with hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because maintaining the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle can cause the radioactive material to shift within the client's body, increasing the risk of radiation exposure. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the applicator. A: Strict bed rest is appropriate to minimize movement and dislodgement of the applicator, ensuring proper treatment delivery. C: Providing a bed bath does not pose a radiation hazard as long as proper precautions are taken. D: Checking the applicator's position every 4 hours is essential for monitoring and ensuring it remains in place to deliver the intended treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 200 CD4+ cells. In AIDS, the immune system is severely compromised, leading to a decrease in CD4+ T cells. A CD4+ count below 200 cells/mm3 is a key indicator of AIDS, as it signifies advanced immunodeficiency. Choices A, B, and C all have CD4+ cell counts above 200, which would not support the occurrence of AIDS. Therefore, the nurse would evaluate a CD4+ count of 200 cells as laboratory data that support the occurrence of AIDS.