The nurse is reviewing a patient’s list of medications and notes that several have the highest abuse potential. According to US standards, the highest potential for abuse of drugs with accepted medical uses is found in drugs included in which schedule?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: II. Schedule II drugs in the US have the highest potential for abuse among drugs with accepted medical uses. This is because they have a high potential for psychological and physical dependence. These drugs have strict regulations for prescribing and dispensing to minimize the risk of abuse. Schedule III, IV, and V drugs have lower abuse potential compared to Schedule II drugs. Schedule III drugs have a moderate to low potential for abuse, while Schedule IV and V drugs have even lower potential for abuse and are considered to have accepted medical uses with lower risk of dependence.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates understanding of the importance of dietary modifications in managing diabetes. By stating "I will no longer put sugar on my cereal because that will help me be healthier," the patient shows a willingness to make lifestyle changes to improve their health. This indicates a commitment to adhering to the prescribed treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because it suggests the patient expects immediate relief and may stop taking the medication prematurely. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on fear-based motivation rather than understanding the benefits of medication adherence. Choice D is incorrect as it reflects a fatalistic attitude that may hinder the patient's engagement in self-care.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: It remains the same. Hepatic enzyme inducers can increase the metabolism of warfarin, leading to decreased levels. However, the dose adjustment is usually not necessary because the international normalized ratio (INR) can be monitored and the warfarin dose can be adjusted accordingly to maintain therapeutic levels. Increasing or decreasing the dose preemptively without INR monitoring can lead to adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the dose can lead to over-anticoagulation. Choice B is incorrect as decreasing the dose can result in under-anticoagulation. Choice D is incorrect as the effect of hepatic enzyme inducers on warfarin metabolism is predictable, but the dose adjustment is based on INR monitoring.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an inhibitor of platelet aggregation, specifically an antiplatelet agent. It works by inhibiting the activation of platelets, preventing blood clot formation. This is important in conditions like heart attacks and strokes. A: Low-molecular-weight heparin is an anticoagulant, not an antiplatelet agent. B: Vitamin K antagonists like warfarin are anticoagulants, not antiplatelet agents. C: Direct thrombin inhibitors like dabigatran are anticoagulants, not antiplatelet agents. In summary, the correct answer is D because clopidogrel is an inhibitor of platelet aggregation, which distinguishes it from the other choices that are anticoagulants.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helps increase blood flow to the extremities. This claim is appropriate because herbal products can indeed have vasodilatory effects that promote better blood circulation, potentially benefiting extremities. Choices A, C, and D make absolute claims that cannot be substantiated or guaranteed, making them inappropriate for labeling herbal products. Choice A oversimplifies the potential benefits and risks associated with diabetes prevention. Choice C falsely claims a cure for a complex and incurable condition like Alzheimer's disease. Choice D wrongly generalizes the safety of herbal products, as individual reactions can vary.