ATI RN
Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug’s potential side effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation, which is known as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Priapism. Priapism is a rare but serious side effect of some erectile dysfunction drugs, causing prolonged and painful erection without sexual stimulation. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicles, not related to this side effect. Stricture (B) is a narrowing of a tube or passageway, not relevant to this scenario. Phimosis (C) is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted, unrelated to the side effect described. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it aligns with the description of prolonged, painful erection without sexual stimulation.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following cephalosporins has activity against gram negative * anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis, and the only cephalorins that cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Ceftriaxone belongs to the third-generation cephalosporins known for broad-spectrum activity against gram-negative * anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides fragilis. 2. It is the only cephalosporin among the choices that can effectively penetrate the blood-brain barrier, making it effective in treating central nervous system infections. 3. Cefoxitin (B) is a second-generation cephalosporin mainly active against gram-positive and some gram-negative bacteria. 4. Cephalin (C) is not a cephalosporin and does not exist. 5. Cexime (D) is a fourth-generation cephalosporin with extended spectrum, but it does not have the same ability to cross the blood-brain barrier as ceftriaxone.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following v agents is indicated in a 25 year old female is * diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Valacyclovir. 1. Valacyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex infections, including genital herpes. 2. It works by stopping the virus from multiplying in the body. 3. Amantadine (A) is used for influenza A virus, not herpes. 4. Lamivudine (C) is used for HIV and hepatitis B, not herpes. 5. Zanamivir (D) is used for influenza, not herpes.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely cause d this hematologic abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zidovudine. Zidovudine is known to cause hematologic abnormalities, specifically bone marrow suppression leading to anemia and neutropenia. This is due to its myelosuppressive effects. Acyclovir, Foscarnet, and Amantadine do not typically cause such hematologic abnormalities. Acyclovir and Foscarnet are antiviral medications primarily affecting viral replication, while Amantadine is an antiviral agent used for influenza A virus. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and known side effects, Zidovudine is the most likely drug to cause this hematologic abnormality.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following antiviral drug most commonly used drug for prevention * and treatment of CMV infections in the immunocompromised patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ganciclovir. Ganciclovir is the most commonly used antiviral drug for prevention and treatment of CMV infections in immunocompromised patients because it is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase, thus preventing viral replication. Ganciclovir has a specific activity against CMV, making it effective for treating CMV infections. Choice B: Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, not for CMV infections. Choice C: Amantadine is an antiviral drug used for influenza A treatment, not for CMV infections. Choice D: Foscarnet is a pyrophosphate analog that inhibits viral DNA polymerase but is typically used as a second-line treatment for CMV due to its side effects and toxicity compared to Ganciclovir.