ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing insulin education for an elderly patient with long-standing diabetes. A prescription has been written for the patient to take 20 units of insulin glargine at 10 PM nightly. The nurse should instruct the patient that the peak of the insulin action for this agent is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: peakless. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with a smooth, consistent release of insulin over 24 hours, providing a steady level of insulin without a pronounced peak. This characteristic helps in maintaining stable blood glucose levels. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they refer to peak values that do not apply to insulin glargine.
Question 2 of 9
What psychosocial factors may potentially contribute to the development of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer A: Altered sleep/rest patterns can disrupt insulin regulation, leading to glucose imbalance and predisposing to diabetic ketoacidosis. Lack of sleep affects hormones that regulate blood sugar levels, increasing the risk of DKA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Eating disorder can affect blood sugar control but is not a direct cause of DKA. C: Exposure to influenza may trigger stress on the body but is not a psychosocial factor contributing to DKA. D: High levels of stress can impact blood sugar levels but are not specific psychosocial factors leading to DKA.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is receiving hydrocortisone sodium succinate for adrenal crisis. What other medication does the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A proton pump inhibitor. When a patient is receiving hydrocortisone for adrenal crisis, it can lead to increased gastric acid secretion. A proton pump inhibitor helps reduce acid production and prevents gastric ulcers. Regular insulin (A) is not typically indicated in this scenario. Canagliflozin (C) is a medication used for diabetes management and is not relevant here. Propranolol (D) is a beta-blocker and may mask signs of hypoglycemia when used with insulin, which is not suitable in this case.
Question 4 of 9
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Contrast dyes can cause kidney injury due to their nephrotoxic effects. 2. Serum creatinine levels are a reliable indicator of kidney function. 3. Evaluating serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure allows detection of any contrast-induced kidney injury. 4. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in early identification and intervention for renal complications. Summary: A: Incorrect. Urine output alone is not a definitive indicator of kidney injury. C: Incorrect. Renal ultrasound is not typically used for detecting contrast-induced kidney injury. D: Incorrect. Postvoid residual volume is not specific for contrast-induced kidney injury.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small-cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of decreased urine output, shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes are indicative of fluid overload due to SIADH. SIADH causes excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. This results in edema, decreased urine output, and neurological symptoms. A: Adrenal crisis presents with hypotension, shock, and electrolyte abnormalities, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. B: Diabetes insipidus would present with excessive urine output and thirst, opposite of the patient's symptoms. C: Myxedema coma results from severe hypothyroidism and presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, not consistent with the patient's symptoms. In summary, the patient's clinical presentation aligns
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 7 of 9
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Explanation: A: Acidosis is a common reason to initiate dialysis in acute kidney injury due to impaired acid-base balance. B: Hypokalemia is not a common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury. C: Volume overload may require dialysis but is not as common as acidosis. D: Hyperkalemia is a valid reason for dialysis but not as common as acidosis in acute kidney injury.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Increased ability to excrete drugs. Rationale: 1. Renal insufficiency impairs kidney function, leading to decreased excretion of drugs. 2. In elderly patients with renal insufficiency, there may be compensatory mechanisms to enhance drug excretion. 3. This increased ability to excrete drugs helps prevent drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Summary: A: Increased GFR is not expected in renal insufficiency; it typically decreases. B: Serum creatinine level would likely be elevated in renal insufficiency, not normal. D: Hypokalemia is not a typical lab finding in renal insufficiency; hyperkalemia is more common.
Question 9 of 9
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.