ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing home care for a patient diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which dietary intervention will the nurse add to the care plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing small, frequent nutrient-dense meals helps maximize kilocalories, which is important for patients with AIDS who may have difficulty maintaining weight due to their compromised immune system. This approach ensures the patient receives essential nutrients and energy to support their immune function. Choice B is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that hot meals are more easily tolerated by AIDS patients. Choice C is incorrect because limiting liquids can lead to dehydration, which is especially detrimental for individuals with weakened immune systems. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging the intake of fatty foods may not necessarily provide the necessary nutrients and energy required for immune support in AIDS patients.
Question 2 of 9
In general, when a patient’s energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, which assessment finding will the nurse observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight does not change. When a patient's energy requirements are completely met by kcal intake, their weight should remain stable as there is a balance between energy intake and expenditure. This indicates that the body is receiving adequate energy for its needs, leading to weight maintenance. A: Weight increases - This would indicate an excess of energy intake over expenditure, leading to weight gain. B: Weight decreases - This would indicate a deficit in energy intake compared to expenditure, resulting in weight loss. D: Weight fluctuates daily - Daily weight fluctuations are normal and can be influenced by factors like hydration levels, food intake, and exercise, but a stable weight over time indicates a balance between energy intake and expenditure.
Question 3 of 9
A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious. 1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children. 2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems. 3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus. 4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn. Incorrect choices: A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation. B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox. C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
Question 4 of 9
When administering a patients eye drops, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent absorption by the nasolacrimal duct. How can the nurse best achieve this goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occlude the puncta after applying the medication. By occluding the puncta after applying the eye drops, the nurse can prevent the medication from draining into the nasolacrimal duct and being absorbed systemically. This is important to ensure that the medication remains in the eye and exerts its intended local effect. Choice A (Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times) is incorrect because hydration status does not directly prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct. Choice B (Encourage self-administration of eye drops) is incorrect as the method of administration does not prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct. Choice D (Position the patient supine before administering eye drops) is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of preventing absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheterfor a male patient. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cleansing the meatus with circular strokes starting at the meatus and moving outward helps prevent the introduction of bacteria into the urethra. This technique minimizes the risk of urinary tract infections. Holding the shaft at a 60-degree angle (A) or with the dominant hand (B) is not necessary for catheter insertion. Cleansing the meatus 3 times with the same cotton ball (C) can introduce more bacteria and is not recommended.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with otosclerosis has significant hearing loss. What should the nurse do to best facilitate communication with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sit or stand in front of the patient when speaking. This choice is correct because it allows the patient with otosclerosis to directly see the nurse's face and lip movements, aiding in lip-reading and understanding speech. Sitting or standing in front of the patient also ensures better eye contact and reduces background noise interference. Choice B is incorrect because exaggerated lip and mouth movements may distort speech and make it harder for the patient to understand. Choice C is incorrect because standing in front of a light or window can create glare and make it difficult for the patient to see the nurse's face clearly. Choice D is incorrect because saying the patient's name loudly before starting to talk does not directly address the communication needs of a patient with otosclerosis.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Impaired nutritional status. Radiation therapy to the neck can lead to mucositis, dysphagia, and taste changes, which can impair the patient's ability to eat and maintain adequate nutrition. This can lead to weight loss, weakness, and delayed wound healing. Discussing this potential adverse effect with the patient is crucial for proactive management. Choice B: Cognitive changes, and Choice C: Diarrhea are less likely to be direct adverse effects of radiation therapy to the neck. Cognitive changes are more commonly associated with brain radiation, while diarrhea is a more common side effect of abdominal radiation. Choice D: Alopecia is a side effect of chemotherapy, not radiation therapy. Radiation therapy does not typically cause hair loss unless it is in the treatment field. Therefore, discussing alopecia with the patient receiving radiation for a malignant neck tumor is not a priority.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications. 1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure. 2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss. 3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition. 4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively. Summary: A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment. C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg. D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.