ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is providing education on a medical abortion. How would she describe the action of the medications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Medications used in a medical abortion typically consist of a combination of Mifepristone and Misoprostol. The action of these medications involves three main effects: softening the cervix to facilitate the expulsion of the pregnancy tissue, causing necrosis of the uterine lining to disrupt the pregnancy, and inducing contractions to expel the contents of the uterus. This process is different from a surgical abortion, which involves a procedure to remove the pregnancy tissue from the uterus.
Question 2 of 9
The physician has determined the need for forceps. The nurse should explain to the patient that the need for forceps is indicated because
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Forceps delivery is indicated in situations where there is fetal distress due to premature placental separation or nonreassuring fetal heart rate. Forceps are used to facilitate a quicker delivery and reduce the risk to the baby during such emergency situations. Forces are also used in cases of fetal distress due to a prolapsed cord where a quick delivery is necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord.
Question 3 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease has arterial blood gas values being reviewed by a nurse. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis is common due to impaired kidney function leading to reduced bicarbonate excretion. The correct values indicating metabolic acidosis in this scenario are a low pH (acidosis), low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level, and low PaCO2 (compensation through respiratory alkalosis). Therefore, the expected values for a client with chronic kidney disease would be pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, as depicted in choice A.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with a diagnosis of gestational diabetes. What finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ketones in the urine indicate poor glucose control and possible ketoacidosis, requiring urgent medical attention.
Question 5 of 9
Before giving a client oral combination contraceptives, which side effects should the nurse tell the patient to be aware of? Select one that does not apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The common side effects of oral combination contraceptives include irregular bleeding, nausea, and breast tenderness. Choice B is incorrect because thick vaginal discharge is not a typical side effect of oral contraceptives.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse assess that a newborn is in respiratory distress when the infant exhibits:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In newborns, respiratory distress can present with various signs and symptoms. The combination of tachypnea (rapid breathing), chest retractions (visible sinking of the skin in between or below the ribs with each breath), grunting (sound made during expiration), and cyanosis (blue discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes) are indicative of respiratory distress in a newborn. These signs suggest that the newborn is having difficulty breathing and may require immediate medical attention. It is essential to recognize and address respiratory distress promptly to ensure the well-being of the newborn.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate during the prenatal visit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should auscultate the fetal heart rate during the prenatal visit for the client who has a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation. At this stage, the fetal heart is usually visible on ultrasound, and auscultating the fetal heart rate can provide valuable information about the health and development of the fetus. It is an important part of prenatal care to monitor the fetal heart rate regularly to ensure the well-being of the baby. In the other scenarios provided:
Question 8 of 9
Which data in the patient's history should the nurse recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of postpartum depression?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A previous history of depression is a significant risk factor for postpartum depression. Women who have experienced a depressive episode in the past are more likely to develop postpartum depression compared to those without such a history. Recognizing this pertinent data in the patient's history can help the nurse identify individuals at higher risk for postpartum depression and provide appropriate support and intervention. The other options mentioned (B. Unexpected operative birth, C. Ambivalence during the first trimester, D. Second pregnancy in a 3-year period) may also contribute to emotional distress but are not as directly linked to postpartum depression as a previous depressive episode.
Question 9 of 9
A woman's temperature has just risen 0.4°F and will remain elevated during the remainder of her cycle. She expects to menstruate in about 2 weeks. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the change?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The hormone responsible for the increase in body temperature prior to menstruation is estrogen. Estrogen is the primary female sex hormone that plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Around the time of ovulation, estrogen levels peak, which can lead to a slight rise in body temperature. This increase in temperature is known as the "estrogenic temperature shift" and is a normal part of the menstrual cycle. The rise in body temperature indicates that ovulation has occurred and that a woman is approaching her fertile window. Estrogen also helps prepare the uterine lining for pregnancy and plays a role in many other reproductive functions.