ATI RN
Complications in Early Pregnancy Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours. Methotrexate is excreted in urine and can be harmful if it comes into contact with others. Flushing the toilet twice helps to minimize the risk of exposure to others. Choice A is incorrect because although folic acid supplementation may be necessary with methotrexate, it is not the priority in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as the client should be advised to seek immediate medical attention if any concerning symptoms occur, rather than waiting for 6 weeks. Choice D is incorrect as the client needs to avoid certain activities for a period of time after receiving methotrexate to prevent complications.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease. 2. It results in the abnormal growth of placental tissue instead of a fetus. 3. As there is no fetus, there won't be any fetal heart tones. 4. Therefore, the nurse anticipates absence of fetal heart tones. Summary: A: Dark brown vaginal bleeding is not specific to hydatidiform mole. C: Fundal height larger than expected is not a typical sign of hydatidiform mole. D: Elevated blood pressure is not directly associated with hydatidiform mole.
Question 3 of 5
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect may indicate pulmonary edema. This condition occurs due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to symptoms like coughing. The increased blood volume and pressure during pregnancy can exacerbate the client's existing heart condition, resulting in pulmonary edema. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing when lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not typically associated with a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) would not directly lead to a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is monitoring a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood work reveals a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. The nurse knows this blood work indicates which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. 2. A value of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control. 3. High HbA1c (above 6.5-7%) signifies uncontrolled diabetes. 4. Choice C is correct as it aligns with the interpretation of HbA1c. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as 10% is not a normal HbA1c value. - Choice B is incorrect as a low value would indicate good control. - Choice D is incorrect as HbA1c is a key marker for diabetes management.
Question 5 of 5
The labor and delivery nurse reviews a client’s prenatal records and notes that the client had a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically. This is the recommended plan because current guidelines suggest administering intrapartum prophylaxis with penicillin for GBS-positive pregnant women to prevent neonatal GBS disease. Choice A is incorrect because sending a GBS to the laboratory immediately is unnecessary since the previous positive culture result is already known. Choice C is incorrect because follow-up cultures are not routinely recommended at 38 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect because determining if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep does not address the need for intrapartum prophylaxis specifically with penicillin.