ATI RN
NCLEX Questions on Skin Integrity and Wound Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has acute conjunctivitis from Staphylococcus. Which should the nurse include when teaching this client? Select the one that does not apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is OK to share makeup once the infection has resolved. Sharing makeup can reintroduce bacteria to the eyes, leading to a reinfection. 1. Sharing makeup increases the risk of spreading the infection. 2. Staphylococcus is highly contagious and can easily be transmitted through shared makeup. 3. Proper hygiene practices, like not sharing makeup, are crucial in preventing the spread of conjunctivitis. 4. The other choices are correct: B emphasizes not sharing items to prevent spread, C suggests a helpful home treatment, and D promotes hand hygiene to prevent infection transmission.
Question 2 of 5
A client has completed the full course of antibiotics prescribed to treat otitis media. Which primary manifestation of the disorder will be relieved as evidence that treatment has been effective?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain. Effective treatment of otitis media should result in the relief of pain, which is a primary manifestation of the disorder. Antibiotics target the infection causing the inflammation and pain in the ear. Impaired hearing (A) may persist even after the infection is treated, as inflammation can take time to resolve. Dizziness (B) may be a symptom of inner ear involvement but is not the primary manifestation of otitis media. Nausea and vomiting (D) are not typically associated with otitis media and would not be relieved by completing the course of antibiotics.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client recovering from pneumonia. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C is correct because the pneumococcal vaccine is not given every fall; it's typically recommended once or in some cases, a booster after a certain period. A is incorrect as alternative vaccines are available for those allergic to eggs. B is a good practice as the influenza vaccine should be received annually. D is incorrect because the pneumococcal vaccine primarily protects against pneumococcal disease, not all bacterial pneumonia.
Question 4 of 5
A 1-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 102°F. What is the rationale for a complete septic workup?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immature immune system. A 1-month-old infant has an underdeveloped immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. A temperature of 102°F suggests a potential serious infection like sepsis. A complete septic workup is necessary to identify the source of infection and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of sweat glands, inadequate red blood cells, and poor lung elasticity do not directly relate to the need for a septic workup in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
An adolescent client is brought to the emergency department (ED) with fatigue, weight loss, a dry cough, and night sweats. The family just recently immigrated to the United States. Based on this data, which potential risk should the nurse include when planning care for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pneumothorax. Given the symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, dry cough, and night sweats in an adolescent who recently immigrated, the nurse should consider tuberculosis (TB) as a potential risk. TB can lead to pneumothorax due to lung cavitation and can present with the symptoms described. Atelectasis, renal failure, and reduced peristalsis are less likely in this scenario and do not align with the client's presenting symptoms and recent immigration history.